I know that the group velocity of a light pulse is defined as
$$\begin{split}v_g&=v_p\left(1+\frac{\lambda}{n}\frac{dn}{d\lambda}\right)\\ &=\frac{c}{n}\left(1+\frac{\lambda}{n}\frac{dn}{d\lambda}\right).\end{split} \tag{1}$$
On the other hand, it is also defined as
$$\begin{split}v_g &= \frac{c}{\left(n-\lambda\frac{dn}{d\lambda}\right)}\\ &=\frac{c}{n}\left(1-\frac{\lambda}{n}\frac{dn}{d\lambda}\right)^{-1}.\end{split}\tag{2}$$
That leads to the equation
$$0=\frac{\lambda^2}{n^2}\left(\frac{dn}{d\lambda}\right)^2.\tag{3}$$
After neither $\lambda$ nor $n$ is $0$, does that mean that $\left(\frac{dn}{d\lambda}\right)^2=0$? And how can I justify that?
Source: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Group_velocity#Other_expressions
Alternative explanation: Wiki is crap?