I have a question about this paper http://arxiv.org/abs/1003.0010 In their model, when consider holographic paramagnetic-ferromagnetic phase transition, they need Yang-Mills field itself to condensate. In bulk the Yang-Mills field which is dual to spin wave has the following form $$ A^3_t=\mu \alpha(r),~~\alpha(r\rightarrow\infty)=1 $$ where the $\mu$ is dual to boundary magnetic field.
When consider holographic paramagnetic-antiferromagnetic phase transition, they focus on the adjoint representation scalar field $\Phi$ which is dual to order parameter of field theory. Near the boundary, the scalar has the following form $$ \Phi=A r^{\Delta-3}+B r^{-\Delta},~~ \Delta=\frac{3}{2}+\sqrt{m^2R^2+\frac{9}{4}} $$ When considering holographic paramagnetic-antiferromagnetic phase transition, the authors choose the standard quantization condition where $A=0$ and $B\neq 0$.
My questions are: 1) If $A\neq0$, is this condition dual to paramagnetic-antiferromagnetic phase transition with external field? why do people general not care such case? 2) Also in holographic superconductor models, why do people always require standard/alternatve quantization? why not consider cases with classic current, that is both components are not zero?
