I'm confused about the rotational work, defined as
$W=\int_{\theta_1}^{\theta_2} \tau_z d \theta $
Where $\tau_z$ is the component of the torque parallel to the axis of rotation $z$.
Consider a very common problem regarding pure rotational motion of a disk on a surface, under the effect of an external force. For istance if a disk is let free to roll on a incline it follows a pure rotational motion only if there is a force of static friction which exerts a torque on it, changing its angular speed $\omega$ (weight has zero torque on the body).
The force of static friction exerts a torque parallel to the axis of rotation which makes the disk rotate of a certain angle, so, from the expression above, I don't see the reason why it should not do work. On the other hand the force of static friction is an example of a force that does not work, since it does not cause displacement. How can that be?
The very same doubt is about ropes tensions in rigid bodies similar to yo-yos: these forces exert torques, but do they do rotational work?