I'm reading a book of philosophy (Less Than Nothing by Slavoj Žižek) and a chapter in it (called The Ontology of Quantum Mechanics) frequently references the double-slit phenomenon. At one point it says the following three points:
(1) Even if we shoot the electrons individually, one after the other, they will, if we do not measure their path, form a wave pattern―but how can they? With what does each individual electron interact? (With itself.)
(2) Even if we measure (or not) the path after the electrons have already passed through the slits, the pattern still depends on our measurement―but how can it, when the measurement takes place after the passage through the slit? It seems as though we can retroactively change the past.
(3) Even if we do not enact measurement at all, the mere fact that the measurement apparatus (and, with it, the possibility of measurement) is there makes the electron behave as a particle―but how can it, when it was in no way affected by the measurement apparatus?
While I'm studying biophysics and I've done a course on elementary atomic physics and QM, I'm far from being qualified to tell whether these claims are problematic or not, and if they are indeed problematic, in what ways. Of course I'm not looking for an in-depth analysis, I'd just be glad if someone pointed out if there are fundamental and obvious misunderstandings contained in the quoted passage.
I'm especially suspicious about the third point - from my studies I would think that the mere presence of a measuring apparatus is irrelevant, what matters is the physical act of measurement and the perturbations it involve.