# Is there an underlying reason why some forces are inversely proportional to the square of the distance? [duplicate]

This is the first time I'm studying those subjects (I'm still in high school) and my teacher couldn't give me an answer. I'm referring specially to Newton's law of gravitation and Coulomb's law of electrostatics.

## marked as duplicate by user12029, Qmechanic♦Mar 11 '16 at 20:30

This follows because the surface area of a sphere is $S=4\pi r^2$.