this is probably a very stupid question. First of all, I'm a mathematician so please try to use coordinate-free notations.
It's often used in quantum mechanics a wave function depending on a fixed trajectory. For instance, in How to derive the Aharonov-Bohm effect result?, $\psi (x, \gamma)$ depends on the path $\gamma$. I can understand this in terms path integral quantization (which is essentially perturbative and I don't like). However in the philosophical scope of quantum mechanics it seems unreasonable to fix a trajectory unless the wave function is collapsed at all possible times (we know the position at every instant). Note that the holonomy $\exp (-iq_e \int A)$ is gauge invariant, but $A$ (that's actually a cocyle $A =\{A_i, {g_{ij}}\}$ representing a gauge equivalence) need not to be $d$-closed (i.e., $dA_i = F_A$ may be non-zero), therefore it really depends on the path chosen (and not just on the endpoints). Maybe this condition is simply implicitly posed on the boundary conditions?
Let me be more precise. I will treat the Aharonov-Bohm effect in order to deal with something more concrete. For simplicity, let's take the space-time $X = \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R}^3$ together with a charge at $(t,0)$, i.e., $$dF_A = q_m\delta_{(t, 0)}$$ and a particle of charge $q_e$ moving through fixed paths $\gamma_i$, $i = 1, 2$ with the same endpoints.
What's the meaning of $\psi (x, \gamma_i)$ in this case? Is the wave function really collapsed at every instant (i.e., do we always know the position)?
If the above questions cannot be answered without propagators or path integrals, then is the Aharonov-Bohm effect a strictly perturbative phenomenum? If no, how to derive the Aharonov-Bohm effect non-perturbatively?
By deriving the Aharonov-Bohm effect I mean obtaining a phase difference that would lead to the Dirac charge quantization condition. For instance, in the path integral formulation the phase difference is given by $\exp (-iq_e \int_{W_e} A)$ (where $W_e$ is a loop through the solenoid) and this leads to $q_m q_e \in 2\pi \mathbb{Z}$ if one wants the solenoid to be undetectable.
For sake of completeness, I will add a possible solution of the Dirac charge quantization condition that does not makes the Aharonov-Bohm effect visible in any meaningful way, so that maybe someone can include the Aharonov-Bohm effect in this context.
A possible solution (to the Dirac charge quantization and not to the Aharonov-Bohm effect) is given at page 14-16 of http://www.maths.ed.ac.uk/~jmf/Teaching/Lectures/EDC.pdf , by declaring that $\chi = \log (g)$ for some gauge transformation $g$, that is the two open charts $U_{i} = \{(x, y, z) \in \mathbb{R}^3| \ (-1)^i z > 0 \}$ covering $\mathbb{R}^3\setminus 0$ together with the potentials $A_{-}$ and $A_{+}$ defines a $U(1)$-bundle.
Thanks in advance.