The renormalization group equations for the $n$-point Green’s function $$\Gamma(n) = \langle \psi_{x_1} \dots \psi_{x_n}\rangle $$ in a four-dimensional massless field theory are $$\mu \frac{d}{d \mu} \tilde{\Gamma}(n) (g) = 0$$ where the coupling g is defined at mass scale $\mu$.
This is easily seen to be equivalent to $$ (\beta \frac{\partial}{\partial g} + n )\tilde{\Gamma}(n) = 0,\tag{1} $$ where $\beta(g) = \mu \frac{d g}{d \mu} $ and where the field $\psi$ has mass dimension one and the Green’s function is a homogeneous function of degree $n$ in the field.
This is a statement from my reading but I am just trying to verify equation $(1)$. In renormalisation, $\psi \rightarrow Z_{\psi} \psi$ and given that the Green's function is a homogenous function of degree $n$, in the renormalised Green's function, we now have a factor of $(Z_{\psi})^n$ in each term. So, $$\frac{d}{d \mu} \tilde \Gamma = \frac{\partial \tilde \Gamma}{\partial \mu} + \frac{\partial \tilde \Gamma}{\partial Z_{\psi}} \frac{\partial Z_{\psi}}{\partial \mu}$$ I would say that $$\frac{\partial \tilde \Gamma}{\partial Z_{\psi}} = n (Z_{\psi})^{-1}\tilde \Gamma$$ but this does not seem to match with equation (1).