Can we always effectively describe a timelike worldline (non-geodesic) in one spacetime as a geodesic in some other spacetime with a different metric? Is this implied by the equivalence principle saying that acceleration and gravitation are indistinguishable.
$\begingroup$
$\endgroup$
3
-
$\begingroup$ Are you defining geodesic by an action principle or by the geodesic equation? $\endgroup$– Ryan UngerCommented Feb 12, 2016 at 1:47
-
$\begingroup$ geodesic equation @0celo7 $\endgroup$– ShadumuCommented Feb 12, 2016 at 16:20
-
$\begingroup$ Related: physics.stackexchange.com/questions/224876/…, possible duplicate. $\endgroup$– Ryan UngerCommented Feb 12, 2016 at 18:14
Add a comment
|