0
$\begingroup$

In a sense, I feel like I understand every step in the following (fairly typical) calculation, but I don't understand the conclusion.

I consider a vector space spanned by two basis vectors $|\phi_A\rangle$ and $|\phi_B\rangle$. I can use this basis to decompose an arbitrary state:

$$ |\psi\rangle=\sum_{i=A,B}\langle\phi_i|\psi\rangle|\phi_i\rangle=\sum_{i=A,B}\phi_i|\phi_i\rangle, $$

where I have defined $\phi_i=\langle\phi_i|\psi\rangle$.

Now I assume that $|\psi\rangle$ is an eigenvector of the Hamiltonian, so that (invoking the resolution of the identity in the first step):

$$ \langle\phi_m|H|\psi\rangle=\sum_{i=A,B}\langle\phi_m|H|\phi_i\rangle\langle\phi_i|\psi\rangle=\sum_{i=A,B}H_{m,i}\phi_i=E\langle\phi_m|\psi\rangle=E\phi_m $$

where I have defined $H_{m,i}=\langle\phi_m|H|\phi_i\rangle$.

Equating terms we see that $\sum_{i=A,B}H_{m,i}\phi_i=E\phi_m$, which reminds us of the rule for matrix multiplication. Therefore, we represent the operator $H$ by a matrix acting on a vector which represents the state $|\psi\rangle$:

$$ \left[\begin{matrix} H_{A,A} & H_{A,B}\\ H_{B,A} & H_{B,B} \end{matrix} \right] \left[ \begin{matrix} \phi_{A}\\ \phi_{B} \end{matrix} \right]=E\left[ \begin{matrix} \phi_{A}\\ \phi_{B} \end{matrix} \right]. $$

The column vector could instead be written:

$$ |\psi\rangle=\left[\begin{matrix} \phi_{A}\\ \phi_{B} \end{matrix} \right]=\phi_A\left[\begin{matrix} 1\\ 0 \end{matrix} \right]+\phi_B\left[\begin{matrix} 0\\ 1 \end{matrix} \right] $$.

But hang on, that expansion is exactly the same as the expansion I made in the very first equation, if we make the identification:

$$ |\phi_A\rangle=\left[\begin{matrix} 1\\ 0 \end{matrix} \right];|\phi_B\rangle=\left[\begin{matrix} 0\\ 1 \end{matrix} \right]. $$

I don't understand this: I thought the basis I chose in the beginning was arbitrary, but now I seem to know what my basis vectors are. That is, they are not arbitrary at all, and I at least think I know what they are specifically.

My feeling is that I have at some point (without realizing) assumed that this is my basis. I think this was likely the step in which I assumed that $|\psi\rangle$ is an eigenvector of $H$. Is that correct?

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ in the first part:$|\psi\rangle=\sum_{i=A,B}|\phi_{i}\rangle\langle \phi_{i}|\psi\rangle$ is the state of your system, which is written as a linear combination of the energy eigenvectors $|\phi_{i}\rangle$.i.e, If you operate with the Hamiltonian, the system will go to one of the eigenstates $|\phi_{i}\rangle$ and gives the eigenvalue $E_{i}$, and the probability for that is given by the coefficient $|\langle \phi_{i}|\psi\rangle|^{2}$. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 11, 2016 at 17:21
  • $\begingroup$ Hint: in writing the wave vector as $[\phi_A,\phi_B]^T$, what have you assumed your basis to be? $\endgroup$
    – lemon
    Commented Feb 11, 2016 at 17:22

2 Answers 2

1
$\begingroup$

My feeling is that I have at some point (without realizing) assumed that this is my basis. I think this was likely the step in which I assumed that $|\psi\rangle$ is an eigenvector of $H$. Is that correct?

That was not the step where this happened. There were two crucial steps: in the first you invoked "resolution of the identity" which implicitly assumes $\langle\phi_a|\phi_b\rangle = \delta_{ab},$ so the vectors became orthogonal and of unit size, precisely the sort of vectors which could be a basis for a 2D vector space.

The step where this then more directly happened was when you decided that you would define:$$H_{ab} = \langle\phi_a|\hat H|\phi_b\rangle, ~~\psi_a = \langle \phi_a|\psi\rangle.$$

At this very point you decided that if $|\psi\rangle$ were $|\phi_0\rangle$ then you were going to assign it coordinates $\psi_0 = 1, \psi_1 = 0,$ thus being the $\begin{bmatrix}1\\0\end{bmatrix}$ element of the vector space in that basis.

$\endgroup$
1
$\begingroup$

In order to understand the manipulations you made, you should first of all understand that the column vector notation is a relative one, in the sense that it is defined with respect to some (arbitrary) fixed basis (at least in the context of formal vector spaces). Every finite-dimensional vector space admits a basis; so you can always decompose one of its elements in terms of that basis:

$$ x=\sum_{i}\ c_{i}\ e_{i}\qquad \qquad y=\sum_{i}\ d_{i}\ e_{i} $$ and so on, where the $e_{i}$'s are the elements that make up the basis. As for the sum of $x$ and $y$, you can set

$$ x+y=\sum_{i}(c_{i}+d_{i})\ e_{i} $$ This sum has precisely the same algebraic properties as the sum defined between two column vectors: if you define $x$ and $y$ to be $$ x=\begin{pmatrix}c_{1}\\\vdots\\c_{n}\end{pmatrix}\qquad\qquad y=\begin{pmatrix}d_{1}\\\vdots\\d_{n}\end{pmatrix} $$ then $$ x+y=\begin{pmatrix}c_{1}+d_{1}\\\vdots\\c_{n}+d_{n}\end{pmatrix} $$ This algebraic property does not depend upon the basis you chose. On the other hand, the coefficients $c_{i}$ and $d_{i}$ do. Let's say, however, that you have fixed a basis. Then the column vector representation for the elements of that basis is $$ e_{1}=\begin{pmatrix}1\\0\\\vdots\\0\end{pmatrix}\qquad\qquad e_{2}=\begin{pmatrix}0\\1\\\vdots\\0\end{pmatrix}\qquad \qquad\dots\qquad\qquad e_{n}=\begin{pmatrix}0\\0\\\vdots\\1\end{pmatrix} $$ The elements of other bases can be expressed in this representation too. As we have $$ e_{j}'=\sum_{i}\ b_{ji}\ e_{i} $$ for some set of coefficients $b_{ji}$ (here $\{e_{j}'\}$ is the second basis), then in the representation you chose $$ e'_{1}=\begin{pmatrix}b_{11}\\b_{12}\\\vdots\\b_{1n}\end{pmatrix}\qquad\qquad e'_{2}=\begin{pmatrix}b_{21}\\b_{22}\\\vdots\\b_{2n}\end{pmatrix}\qquad \qquad\dots\qquad\qquad e'_{n}=\begin{pmatrix}b_{n1}\\b_{n2}\\\vdots\\b_{nn}\end{pmatrix} $$ In conclusion, the column vector representation is always given in relation to some specific basis; the elements of the basis through which you decided to represent the elements of the vector space (and only them) then must be represented by column vectors with one $1$ and $n-1$ $0$'s in their rows. What you ask in your question does not depend on QM or on the Hamiltonian; its answer is a general fact of (elementary) representation theory in linear algebra.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.