1
$\begingroup$

I'm reading some notes on quantum mechanics that state the following.

$$\langle x\rvert \left( \hat{x} + \frac{i\hat{p}}{m\omega}\right) \lvert E \rangle = 0 \Rightarrow \left( x+ \frac{\hbar}{m\omega}\frac{d}{dx}\right)\langle x \lvert E\rangle=0$$

Why is this true? By linearity, we know that

$$\langle x\rvert \left( \hat{x} + \frac{i\hat{p}}{m\omega}\right)\lvert E \rangle = \langle x\rvert \hat{x}\lvert E \rangle + \langle x\rvert \frac{i\hat{p}}{m\omega}\lvert E \rangle$$

$$= \langle x\rvert x\lvert E \rangle + \langle x\rvert \frac{\hbar}{m\omega}\frac{d}{dx}\lvert E \rangle$$

$$= x\langle x\lvert E \rangle + \frac{\hbar}{m\omega} \langle x\rvert \frac{d}{dx}\lvert E \rangle$$

So we require

$$\langle x\rvert \frac{d}{dx}\lvert E \rangle=\frac{d}{dx}\langle x\rvert E \rangle$$

These seem like two very different expressions. On the left hand side, the operator is acting on an energy eigenstate in a Hilbert space whereas the operator is acting on a probability amplitude on the right hand side.

$\endgroup$
1
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ ...what is $\mathrm{d}/\mathrm{d}x\lvert E\rangle$ supposed to mean? $\endgroup$
    – ACuriousMind
    Jan 28, 2016 at 16:02

2 Answers 2

6
$\begingroup$

The relevant identity is $$\langle x| \hat{p}|\psi\rangle =−i \hbar \frac{d}{dx}\langle x|\psi\rangle\tag{1}$$ which is nothing but the definition of the operator $\hat{p}$.

Instead $\frac{d}{dx}|\psi\rangle$ does not make sense as it stands. Because $\frac{d}{dx}$ acts on functions of $x$ whereas $|\psi\rangle$ is a vector in a Hilbert space. Conversely $\langle x|\psi \rangle = \psi (x)$ defines a function of $x$ when $x$ varies in $\mathbb R$ so that $\frac{d}{dx}\langle x|\psi\rangle$ makes sense.

The operator $\hat{p}$ must be viewed as an operator working on abstract vectors of the abstract Hilbert space $\cal H$ and it has different equivalent definitions depending on the representation you fix for $\cal H$ in terms of a Hilbert space of functions. As a matter of fact, if dealing with the so-called position representation, i.e., representing the vectors $|\psi\rangle$ in terms of wavefunctions $\psi= \psi(x)$, the corresponding Hilbert space isomorphism is $$U: \cal H \ni |\psi\rangle \mapsto \psi\quad \mbox{with $\psi(x) = \langle x|\psi \rangle$ for $x \in \mathbb R$}\:.$$ That is a Hilbert-space isomorphism from $\cal H$ to $L^2(\mathbb R, dx)$. Definition (1) can be rephrased as $$\hat{p} = U \left(-i \hbar \frac{d}{dx}\right)\: U^{-1}$$ and it holds, obviously, when dealing with a suitably smooth domain of functions in $L^2(\mathbb R, dx)$.

An alternate equivalent definition is obtained by dealing with the so-called momentum representation, where the wavefunctions are function of the momentum values: $\hat{\psi}= \hat{\psi}(p)$. Here, $$\hat{p} = V p \: V^{-1}\tag{2}$$ where $p$ in the right-hand side is the multiplicative operator and $$V: \cal H \ni |\psi\rangle \mapsto \hat\psi\quad \mbox{with $\hat{\psi}(p) = \langle p|\psi \rangle$ for $p \in \mathbb R$.}$$ Above, $$\langle p|\psi \rangle = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi \hbar}}\int_{\mathbb R} e^{-i\frac{px}{\hbar}}\psi(x) dx$$ and $V : {\cal H} \to L^2(\mathbb R, dp)$ is another Hilbert-space isomorphism.

Clearly, here $VU^{-1} : L^2(\mathbb R, dx) \to L^2(\mathbb R, dp)$ is the Fourier transform.

Within this framework, another way to write (2) is $$\langle p| \hat{p}|\psi\rangle =p\langle p|\psi\rangle\tag{3}\:.$$

$\endgroup$
9
  • $\begingroup$ Can $\mathcal H=L^2(\mathbb R, \mathrm dx)$ be chosen from the beginning? I mean if we define the position operator with $\langle x|\hat x|\psi\rangle = x \langle x|\psi\rangle$ we can again find, similarly to what you've shown, that the position operator on $L^2$ is given by $(X\psi) (x) = x \psi(x)$. But if $\mathcal H= L^2$ then the defining equation of the position operator is quite useless and we won't find the action of $X$ on wave functions $\psi$, no? $\endgroup$ Feb 27, 2022 at 9:35
  • $\begingroup$ Sorry, I do not understand. Why should $(X\psi)(x):= x \psi(x)$ be useless? $\endgroup$ Feb 27, 2022 at 9:45
  • $\begingroup$ I mean that starting from the definition of $\hat x$ on $\mathcal H$, then choosing $\mathcal H=L^2$ seems 'useless' in the sense that we cannot extract any information from it, since it is simply the eigenequation of a self-adjoint operator (ignoring the fact that it may not have eigenstates at all), i.e. we would find for the position operator on $L^2$ that $ X \delta_x = x \delta_x$ (where I've changed the notation a bit). But how do we know that $\delta_x$ is the delta distribution (to e.g. recover the equation you gave)? $\endgroup$ Feb 27, 2022 at 10:17
  • $\begingroup$ Put differently: We can start by defining $X$ on $L^2$ as usual and then say that we can represent it on different (suitable) Hilbert spaces (i.e. on 'the abstract' Hilbert space $\mathcal H$) via some isomorphisms, right? But the other way around won't work in general, since choosing $\mathcal H= L^2$ the equation $\langle x|\hat x |\psi\rangle = x\langle x|\psi\rangle$ won't tell us much, e.g. we don't know what the $|x\rangle$ are, in contrast to the explicit definition of $X$ on $L^2$. $\endgroup$ Feb 27, 2022 at 10:22
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ OK I see, It is difficult to answer because all that stuff is just formal and just apparently rigorous. Indeed I do not use it and I do not like it! Spectral theory is another thing. I prefer to assume from scratch that the Hilbert space, up to isomorphislms, is $L^2(R,dx)$ and there I define $X$ as $(X\psi)(x)= x\psi(x)$ and I do not use the Dirac notation...Simply $|x\rangle$ does not exist since the spectrum of $X$ is continuous. Though I understand the intuitive meaning of Dirac's notation. $\endgroup$ Feb 27, 2022 at 10:48
1
$\begingroup$

Your treatment of the $\hat x$ operator is correct, so I'll focus on the $\langle x|\hat p |E\rangle$ term. The expression $\frac{d}{dx}|E\rangle$ only makes sense if $|E\rangle$ is, for example, some one-parameter family of wave functions indexed by the parameter $x$. This occurs for instance, when computing a geometric phase. Meanwhile, the expression $\frac{d}{dx}\langle x|E\rangle$ involves differentiating a wave function that depends on $x$. In other words, the operator $p$ can be represented by the differential operator $-i\hbar\partial_x$, which acts on the components of wave functions when expanded in the $|x\rangle$ basis.

To see why $\langle x|\hat p|E\rangle=-i\hbar\partial_x\langle x|E\rangle$, it helps to recall the original definition of $\hat p$ as the generator of translations: $e^{i\hat p \Delta x/\hbar}|x\rangle=|x+\Delta x\rangle$, or $(1+i\hat p \epsilon/\hbar)|x\rangle\approx |x+\epsilon\rangle$, which implies (keeping terms up to linear order in $\epsilon$ and setting $\psi_E(x)\equiv\langle x|E\rangle$) $$ \langle x|(1+i\epsilon\hat p/\hbar)|E\rangle=\int d^3x'\langle x|(1+i\epsilon\hat p/\hbar)|x'\rangle\langle x'|E\rangle=\int d^3x'\langle x|x'+\epsilon\rangle\langle x'|E\rangle\\=\int d^3x'\delta(x-x'-\epsilon)\langle x'|E\rangle=\langle x-\epsilon|E\rangle\\ \Rightarrow\psi_E(x)+i\epsilon/\hbar\langle x|\hat p|E\rangle=\psi_E(x-\epsilon)=\psi_E(x)-\epsilon\partial_x\psi_E(x)+\mathcal O(\epsilon^2). $$ Hence, cancelling terms on both sides we have (with our conventions) $\langle x|\hat p|E\rangle=-i\hbar\partial_x\psi_E(x)$.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.