For a an interaction term like $g(\overline{\psi} \gamma^\mu \psi) \partial_\mu \phi$ in which $\psi$ is a Dirac spinor and $\phi$ a scalar field (d=4), should we expect this vertex to have a momentum associated with it (from the $\partial_\mu \phi$)? If so, what is the meaning of a vertex "generating" momentum?

  • $\begingroup$ The first question is closely related to Interpretation of derivative interaction term in QFT. As for the second one, who says that the vertex generates momentum? where have you read/heard this? $\endgroup$ – AccidentalFourierTransform Jan 24 '16 at 15:29
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks @AccidentalFourierTransform! The interpretation interaction was really useful. I didn't read on the generating of momentum anywhere, I was just confused for the momentum term on the vertex $\endgroup$ – Sofia Jan 24 '16 at 16:12

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