If you have a loop that is spun clockwise as a magnet is moved near it, is a current induced in that loop?
If the loop were not spun, by Faraday & Lenz's laws a current would be generated in a direction that opposes the change in magnetic flux. Since the magnetic is moving closer and flux is increasing, in order to decrease flux current would be induced in a counter-clockwise direction (right hand rule).
Now the loop is spinning in a clock-wise direction.
One way of thought is to say that the opposing direction of the induced current and spinning loop "cancel" each other leading to a net zero current. This doesn't seem physically sound, however, since the result would then depend on your reference frame.
Further, if this were true isn't this a violation of Faraday's law — because the flux "is" still changing no matter what reference frame you take and hence there must be some induced current.
Some research tells me that this might be linked to Faraday's Paradox but I didn't quite understand the setup nor the resolution of the "paradox."