There is no problem now. But somebody may be confused by the same analysis when studying QM or Group theory. (actually my motivation for asking this question comes from the SU(5) Grand Unification theory where the hypercharge simply add up for the antisymmetric tensor representation of SU(5).)
When we consider two independent electron 1 and 2, we always have $$\tag1 J=J_1+J_2,$$ where $J_1$, $J_2$ are the angular momentum operators for the electron 1 and 2 respectively, and $J$ is the total angular momentum operator. But here now I am confused by Eq.(1). $J_1$ is an operator acting upon Hilbert space $\mathcal{H}_1$ of elector 1 and $J_2$ is an operator acting upon Hilbert space $\mathcal{H}_2$ of electron 2. Then what does it mean by $J_1+J_2$ when $J_1$, $J_2$ act upon different Hilbert space? You may think that $J_1$ actually is $$J_1\otimes I$$ and $J_2$ actually is $$I\otimes J_2,$$ where $I$ is the identity operator for the corresponding Hilbert space. Then $J$ actually is $$\tag2 J=(J_1\otimes I)+(I\otimes J_2)=J_1\otimes J_2. \text{ (note that this is incorrect)}$$ Then now comes another question. Suppose $J_1$ has eigenvalue $j_1$, $J_2$ has eigenvalue $j_2$, then how to prove that $j_1+j_2$ is the eigenvalue of $J\equiv J_1\otimes J_2$?
Now since Eq.(2) is incorrect, we may use $(J_1\otimes I)+(I\otimes J_2)$ rather than $J_1\otimes J_2$. Suppose $\psi_1$ is the eigenvector of $J_1$ with eigenvalue $j_1$, $\psi_2$ is the eigenvector of $J_2$ with eigenvalue $j_2$. Then we have $$\left((J_1\otimes I)+(I\otimes J_2)\right)(\psi_1\otimes\psi_2)=(j_1+j_2)(\psi_1\otimes\psi_2).$$ Q.E.D