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So I want to diagonalize my Hamiltonian (it is bosonic hamiltonian) which is:

$H=(E+\Delta)a^{\dagger}a + 1/2\Delta(a^{\dagger}a^{\dagger} + aa)$

My class didn't cover this material so I don't really know how to procede. I would be grateful for any literature which covers this topics and a problem book with solutions would be great too.

What I tried to do was writing my Hamiltonian in matrix form which would be: $\begin{pmatrix} 1/2 \Delta & 1/2(E+\Delta) \\ 1/2(E+\Delta) & 1/2 \Delta \\ \end{pmatrix}$

And then diagonalize it, find eigenstates etc. Is this the correct way?

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    $\begingroup$ They are of course annihilation and creation operators (they are bosonic - forgot to mention that). I don't know the dimension but hamiltonian acts on any state $|\phi>$. $\endgroup$
    – Caims
    Commented Dec 15, 2015 at 22:21
  • $\begingroup$ You want to find a new annihilation operator $b$, which is a linear combination of $a$ and $a^\dagger$, such that $[b, H]=E b$ where $E$ will be the eigenenergy. $\endgroup$
    – Meng Cheng
    Commented Dec 15, 2015 at 22:35
  • $\begingroup$ But why? Can you direct me to any source/book ? $\endgroup$
    – Caims
    Commented Dec 15, 2015 at 22:40
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    $\begingroup$ @GennaroTedesco I don't find it unusual at all. $\endgroup$
    – Meng Cheng
    Commented Dec 16, 2015 at 0:41
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    $\begingroup$ I don't understand the objections. Of course $[b,H]=Eb$ is a consequence of $H=Eb^\dagger b$, that's exactly what you need to find $b$ and $E$ since we know $b$ must a linear combination of $a$ and $a^\dagger$ If you do not believe it, just use this relation and work out the resulting equations. $\endgroup$
    – Meng Cheng
    Commented Dec 16, 2015 at 0:56

3 Answers 3

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Diagonalizing the Hamiltonian means you want to bring it into the form $H=\omega b^\dagger b$, and it is pretty obvious that $b$ should be a linear combination of $a$ and $a^\dagger$, and $b$ should satisfy the canonical commutation of annihilation operators, namely $[b,b^\dagger]=1, [b,b]=0$.

Now let's write $b=ua+va^\dagger$ (this is called the Bogoliubov transformation, by the way). The condition $[b,b^\dagger]=1$ leads to $|u|^2-|v|^2=1$. Let us expand out $b^\dagger b$:

$$ b^\dagger b= |u|^2 a^\dagger a+ |v|^2 a a^\dagger + u^*v a^\dagger a^\dagger + uv^* aa. $$

Therefore

$$ \omega(|u|^2+|v|^2)=E+\Delta, \omega u^*v = \frac{1}{2}\Delta. $$

Together with $|u|^2-|v|^2=1$, we have three equations for three variables ($u, v, \omega$). In fact, in this case one can safely assume $u$ and $v$ are both real. The rest is just algebra.

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  • $\begingroup$ That's what I asked for. The way to compute it. Thank you. $\endgroup$
    – Caims
    Commented Dec 16, 2015 at 12:29
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Diagonalising an operator means finding its eigenstates.

Without loss of generality your Hamiltonian can be written as $$ H = c_1 a^{\dagger}a + c_2 a^{\dagger}a^{\dagger} + c_3 a a $$ with $a^{\dagger},a$ being operators of the type $a^{\dagger}\colon \mathcal{H}_n\mapsto \mathcal{H}_{n+1}$ (and conversely for $a$), where $\mathcal{H}_n$ is the $n$-particle Hilbert space contributing to the Fock space $\mathcal{F}= \oplus^{\infty}_n\mathcal{H}_n$.

There must be a few errors in your equation if you really mean that in a second quantisation procedure. First of all there is no general $a^{\dagger},a$ operator, rather you have one for each momentum $k$, that is $a^{\dagger}_k,a_k$ create and destroy (in quotation marks) particles with momentum $k$; there is no $k$ in your initial Hamiltonian, whereas the general form must be $\sum_k c_k\,a^{\dagger}_ka_k$.

Second of all: according to whether your particles are fermions or bosons the corresponding operators behave in a different way: for instance $a^{\dagger}_ka^{\dagger}_k=0$ for fermions.

If the Hamiltonian acts on a subspace of the Fock space with a certain number of particles $\mathcal{H}_n$, then the last two terms in your equation would bring the action onto $\mathcal{H}_{n\pm2}$, therefore the rhs will live in $\mathcal{H}_n +\mathcal{H}_{n+2} +\mathcal{H}_{n-2}$, which does not really make any sense since no prescription on how to sum elements in different Hilbert spaces is given (the last two pieces).

Either you assign a precise prescription to achieve the above, or there must be errors elsewhere in the formula, as pointed out; try giving more context so that one can work out what you mean. This said, suggested literature on how to write any Hamiltonian in second quantisation and find the corresponding solutions is, for example:

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you so much. It's much clearer now. But there's no error in my hamiltonian (except that matrix which I wrote makes no sense). There's no summation, it is directly taken from my homework. $\endgroup$
    – Caims
    Commented Dec 15, 2015 at 23:18
  • $\begingroup$ So basically my hamiltonian must keep me in the same Fock space and act on $H_n \rightarrow H_n$. Which means that my hamiltonian must have the same number of creation and annihilation operators in every coefficient to act from $H_n$ to $H_n$ ? $\endgroup$
    – Caims
    Commented Dec 15, 2015 at 23:33
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    $\begingroup$ What's so difficult about this Hamiltonian? Just consider $a, a^\dagger$ to be the ladder operators of the 1D harmonic oscillators. It's defined on the whole Fock space, and that is perfectly fine. $\endgroup$
    – Meng Cheng
    Commented Dec 16, 2015 at 0:51
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    $\begingroup$ You ask me about how I deal with quantum field theories at all? Here is how: quantum field theories deal with many-particle systems, and particles are allowed to be created and annihilated. So, the actual Hilbert space is spanned by the occupation number basis which specifies the occupation number in some single particle states. You can break this infinite dimensional Hilbert space into subspaces with different total number of occupations, that's your $\mathcal{H}_n$. So $a$ takes you between these subspaces, which is a linear operator in the actual infinite-dimensional Hilbert space. $\endgroup$
    – Meng Cheng
    Commented Dec 16, 2015 at 1:19
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    $\begingroup$ I don't think there is any point in conutinuing this discussion. The answer is there, the OP seems to have no problem understanding $a$ and $a^\dagger$ (besides, the problem was probably assigned in the context of ladder operators for harmonic oscillators). We both think each other not reading the comments and confused about basic things, that's perfectly fine. I'll stop. $\endgroup$
    – Meng Cheng
    Commented Dec 16, 2015 at 1:22
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How about just using Matrix representation.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Creation_and_annihilation_operators#Matrix_representation

You can have any number of Bosons from 0 to infinity. That will be your basis, and your wave function is represented as a vector in which element 0 gives probability amplitude of having 0 quanta, element 1 gives amplitude for 1 quantum, 2 for 2 quanta etc. in the system.

Calculating with matrices is easy:

N = 1000;
a = zeros(N);
for i=1:N-1
a(i,i+1) = sqrt(i);
end
H = 10*a*a' + 5 / 2 * (a*a+a'*a');
eig(N)

Disclaimer: I have worked with Fermions almost always, except for some quantum course 8 years ago.

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