It is noteworthy that one cannot simply divide any length more than the Planck-length. If so, one cannot simply divide any volume more than the $(Planck-length)^3$.
So if I want to find the limit of some $n$,
where $a$ is a constant and $V$ is a volume,
it is not correct to limit $n$ to infinity right?
because when limiting to infinity I surpass the plank volume.
So am I violating any laws of physics if I'm limiting this expression to infinity?