# Supersymmetry breaking and normalizable zero modes

Why does supersymmetry always lead to normalizable zero modes?

For example, it is stated in the paper by Michelson and Kaplan (http://arxiv.org/abs/hep-th/9510053) that we can assume, without loss of generality, that the zero modes corresponding to the 3-form field of 11 dimensional supergravity are normalizable.