I'm a bit confused by Weinberg's discussion of scattering. He defined the in and out states $|\Psi^{\pm}_\alpha\rangle$ with particle content $\alpha$ as states that transform under the Poincare group as a direct product of one particle states at $t\rightarrow\mp\infty$. He also shows that these states are energy eigenstates with energy $E_\alpha$.
He then says that these states are in the Heisenberg picture and hence are time independent but the appearance of the states at a time other that $t=0$ is given by the action of $U(t)$. First of all, since the states are in the Heisenberg picture, why are they evolving? I have kind of convinced myself that they're not actually time evolving, but I can't really explain it so I clearly don't really understand it, so I'd like some clarification on what's happening.
He then defines the S-matrix as $$S_{\beta\alpha} = \langle {\Psi_{\beta}}^{-} | \Psi_\alpha^+\rangle.\tag{3.2.1}$$
Then he introduces an operator $S$ such that $$\langle\Phi_\beta|S|\Phi_\alpha\rangle \equiv S_{\beta\alpha}\tag{3.2.4}$$ where $|\Phi_\alpha\rangle$ are eigenstates of the free particle Hamiltonian $H_0$. He also says that we can write $$S=\Omega^\dagger(\infty)\Omega(-\infty)\tag{3.2.5}$$ with $$\Omega(\tau)=e^{iH\tau}e^{-iH_0\tau}\tag{3.1.14}$$ which satisfies $$|\Psi^\pm_\alpha\rangle=\Omega(\mp\infty)|\Phi_\alpha\rangle.\tag{3.1.13}$$ However he says that this expression only makes sense when acting on wave packets since otherwise the states would only evolve up to a phase. The actual expression is $$\int d\alpha g(\alpha) |\Psi_\alpha^\pm\rangle =\Omega(\mp\infty)\int d\alpha g(\alpha) |\Phi_\alpha\rangle$$ where $g(\alpha)$ encodes the shape of the wave packet.
Now the obvious conclusion here is that it also only makes sense for $S$ to act on wave packets. But in his definition $$\langle\Phi_\beta|S|\Phi_\alpha\rangle \equiv S_{\beta\alpha}=\langle\Psi_\beta^-|\Psi_\alpha^+\rangle$$ the states $|\Phi_\alpha\rangle$ are energy eigenstates, and the only way I see the relation working is if we take $|\Psi^\pm_\alpha\rangle=\Omega(\mp\infty)|\Phi_\alpha\rangle$ to be an actual relation, which he's already said we can't do.
Also in every other field theory book I've seen the $S$ operator is also acting on eigenstates of the free Hamiltonian like here. So what's going?