Can we represent the motion of a particle in 2D space using Lagrange's equations? This is what I tried. Please tell me what is wrong?
Consider a particle on a plane have the co-ordinates $(x,y)$ with a velocity $v$ and mass $m$.
Now $v=\dot{x}+\dot{y}$ where $\dot{x}$ and $\dot{y}$ are the derivatives with respect to time.
According to Lagrange's equation,
$L=\frac{1}{2}m(\dot{x}+\dot{y})^2-mgy$
$\frac{{\partial}{L}}{\partial{y}}=-mg$ ---(1)
$\frac{{\partial}{L}}{\partial{\dot{y}}}=m(\dot{x}+\dot{y})$
Therefore $\frac {\mathrm d t}{\mathrm d t}(\frac{{\partial}{L}}{\partial{\dot{y}}})=\frac{{\partial}{L}}{\partial{\dot{y}}}=m(\ddot{x}+\ddot{y})$
Now $\ddot{x}$ and $\ddot{y}$ are the vertical & horizontal components of the acceleration $a$ of the particle. So let $\ddot{x}=a_x$ and $\ddot{y}=a_y$
Hence $\frac {\mathrm d t}{\mathrm d t}(\frac{{\partial}{L}}{\partial{\dot{y}}})=m(a_x+a_y)$ ---(2)
From Lagrange's equation, Eq (1)= Eq(2)
=> $-mg=m(a_x+a_y)$
$-g=a_x+a_y$
Does the above equation make any sense? I tried to apply it to a real problem and it gave me a wrong result. What is wrong with my working?
Thanks in advance.
Update:
Thanks a lots guys. Yes, the expression for $v$ was wrong. When I calculated with the correct expression I got the result $a_y=-g$
What does it mean? Does it mean that the Y component of the acceleration is always equal to acceleration due to gravity?
And can someone explain how Lagrangian mechanics can be used to solve simple mechanical problems? When I tried applying it to problems all I got were few known results & other nonsensical ones (like the one in this question. Probably due to my erroneous application of the Lagrange.)
PS: Will someone explain why this question was downvoted?