-2
$\begingroup$

Observer A is standing on a planet, and observer B is on a ship.
At t=0 B is 1 light year away from A.
Also at t=0 B will accelerate its ship to a 0,999999999...$c$ instantaneously (yes, its a very powerful engine) and start a stopwatch. Observer A will also start a watch.

When the ship collides with the planet, the watches will stop and compared.

What will be the value on both watches? pls elaborate explaining A = B, A < B and-or A > B...

Edit 1:
Both watches will be started at the same time

$\endgroup$
5
  • $\begingroup$ I'm assuming both "stop watches" are some sort of modern contrivances that can continuously count time for over a year? It will take more than a year for the two to collide, of course. How will both watches be started at the same time? $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 5, 2015 at 17:07
  • $\begingroup$ @ToddWilcox sorry Todd but I seem to miss your point... as i understand, stopwatch is the kind of watch that start from zero and count forward... as in en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stopwatch... and they will be started at the same time because both observers agreed that upon a event that will happen at the same time for both will be the start of the experiment... $\endgroup$
    – Leonardo
    Commented Aug 5, 2015 at 17:14
  • $\begingroup$ If you look at the photos in that wikipedia article, those stopwatches only run for one hour before going back to zero. Your experiment will run for more than one year, so unless they are special stop watches there will be no way to directly compare them. It's ok, we can assume special stop watches. The more important problem is: How will the watches be started at the same time? $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 5, 2015 at 17:17
  • $\begingroup$ Assuming somehow the starting of the "stopwatches" is synchronized (by planning more than a year in advance, perhaps?), and we ignore the effects of acceleration on Observer B, doesn't this article answer your question: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Time_dilation or this: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Twin_paradox $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 5, 2015 at 17:24
  • $\begingroup$ @ToddWilcox exactly in the middle of the way between A and B theres a light bulb. When A and B detect that the light bulb turned on, the experiment begins... happy? honestly im proposing a engine that accelerate almost $c$ instantaneously... $\endgroup$
    – Leonardo
    Commented Aug 5, 2015 at 17:28

1 Answer 1

1
$\begingroup$

It's a good question, and illustrates an important principle in relativity. The proper time of an observer is equal to the length of their world line.

For any observer the time shown by the clock they carry is called the proper time, and the proper time is an invariant i.e. all observers in all frames of reference will measure the proper time to have the same value. So the elapsed time for observer $A$ on the planet is just the time shown on $A$'s clock, and the elapsed time for observer $B$ in the rocket is just the time shown on $B$'s clock. The task is to calculate these times and find the difference between them.

The way we do this is to choose a convenient coordinate system and calculate the length of the world lines for the two observers. The length of the world line has to be calculated using the Minkowski metric:

$$ c^2 d\tau^2 = c^2dt^2 - dx^2 - dy^2 - dz^2 \tag{1} $$

Where $\tau$ is the proper time.

We'll use observer $A$'s coordinates. Since $A$ is an inertial observer this makes life simpler. Since $B$ starts at rest wrt $A$ both $A$ and $B$ share the same inertial frame and can synchronise their clocks. So we'll assume that both $A$ and $B$'s clocks are set to zero at the moment $B$ starts accelerating.

In $A$'s coordinates $B$ starts accelerating at $t = 0$ and reaches $A$ at $t = T$. First we calculate the length of $A$'s world line, and since in $A$'s coordinates $A$ isn't moving we have $dx = dy = dz = 0$, so for $A$ equation (1) simplifies to $d\tau = dt$. So for $A$ the proper time between $B$ starting to accelerate and $B$ reaching $A$ is just:

$$ \tau_A = \int_0^T dt = T $$

Sadly, this is the only easy bit of the calculation. What we need now if $B$'s trajectory expressed in $A$'s coordinates. We can arrange the axes so that $B$ travels along the $x$ axis and we can ignore the $y$ and $z$ coordinates. In that case $B$'s position, $x$,will be given by an equation of the form:

$$ x = f(t) $$

and therefore:

$$ dx = f'(t) dt $$

and we substitute this in equation (1) to get:

$$ c^2d\tau^2 = c^2dt^2 - f'^2(t) dt^2 $$

and with a bit of rearrangement we get the equation for $B$'s proper time:

$$ \tau_B = \int_0^T \sqrt{1 - \frac{f'^2(t)}{c^2}} dt \tag{2} $$

Now we can't evaluate this because you've been coy about exactly how $B$ accelerates and wihout knowing that we don't know the form of the function $f$. Incidentally, you can't say $B$ accelerates instantly because that would make $f'$ infinite and the equation would become singular and can't be integrated. You'd need to choose some sensible function of time for the acceleration.

However we can say that $\tau_B \lt T$ i.e. that $B$ experiences less time than $A$. That's because the expression $\sqrt{1 - f'^2(t)/c^2}$ is always less than or equal to one, so integrating must give a value for $\tau_B$ that is less than or equal to $T$.

There is one special case we can easily do, and that is to assume $B$ was already moving at velocity $v$ at time zero i.e. $B$ didn't have to accelerate. In that case the function $f'(t)$ is simply $B$'s velocity, $v$, and equation (2) becomes:

$$ \tau_B = \int_0^T \sqrt{1 - \frac{v^2}{c^2}} dt $$

And since $B$'s velocity, $v$, is constant this immediately integrates to give us:

$$ \tau_B = \sqrt{1 -\frac{v^2}{c^2}} T $$

which should be instantly recognisable as the equation for the time dilation of an object moving at constant speed $v$.

$\endgroup$
6
  • $\begingroup$ wow! such a nice answer! can you pls just fill in the gap for me?: given the scenario where B was already moving at $v$ at time zero what would the clocks actually show when compared? $\endgroup$
    – Leonardo
    Commented Aug 5, 2015 at 20:29
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @Leonardo: $A$'s clock would show $T$ and $B$'s clock would show $\sqrt{1-v^2/c^2}T$. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 6, 2015 at 4:59
  • $\begingroup$ thanks for the explanation! can i abuse it a little more? having $v$=($c$-1) and T=1(in years) we have B's clock showing a really small number. I must have messed up my math or my understanding of the whole concept, because such result imply that B experienced a very small trip, but we do know that he traveled the distance of 1 light year! Where am I wrong? Math or understanding? $\endgroup$
    – Leonardo
    Commented Aug 6, 2015 at 13:14
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @Leonardo: Remember the path length is the length of the path in spacetime, not just in space. Note the minus sign in the metric: $c^2d\tau^2 = c^2dt^2 - dx^2$. The minus sign means a displacement in time and a displacement in space cancel each other out to some extent. In fact for light moving at $c$ we have $dx = cdt$ and the equation gives $d\tau = 0$. So for a light ray the path length is always zero! $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 6, 2015 at 14:55
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Yes, sort of. A photon has no rest frame, so the statement in the perspective of a photon is an oxymoron. However as $v \rightarrow c$ the travel time tends to zero. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 6, 2015 at 17:31

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.