Regarding Faraday's Electric Motor (which is in a pool of mercury, or salt-water)
Why will a 'Non-Electric Faraday Motor,' which just uses permanent-magnets, not work?
Can someone explain this using the simplest terms, that anyone could understand.
(Obviously, in an Electric-Faraday-Motor, there is DC current flowing in the wire, but the magnetic field generated by that wire is the same as the magnetic field produced by the permanent magnet suspended by strings in the above image of a Non-Electric Faraday-Motor)
(I have read some explanations which seem to suggest that in an Electric-Faraday-Motor, the magnetic field of the permanent magnet also interacts directly with the electrons which are flowing in one direction, through the wire. The problem with that explanation is that :
If the DC current is flowing UP the wire, then it is travelling in the same direction as the magnetic field of the permanent magnet, and that could not cause the motor to spin .
If the DC current is flowing DOWN the wire, then it is travelling in the exact opposite direction to the magnetic-field of the permanent magnet, and that could not cause the motor to spin.)
(Another explanation I read is that the magnetic fields of permanent magnets warp/bend when they are interacting with incompatible magnetic fields of other permanent magnets, whereas the magnetic fields of electromagnets do not warp/bend, which sounds incorrect)
Please only give an explanation in language that anyone can understand.