A mass point of mass $m$ moves frictionlessly down an inclide slope under influence of gravity. Solve the equations of motion and determine the constraint with the use of the lagrange equation of second kind.
I'm learning for my upcoming exam and I'm kind of stuck on this one.
Alright, I tried drawing this situation first:
I'm not yet familiar with the notations but I guess the lagrange equation of second kind are the euler-lagrange equations, right?
Anyway, first I tried getting $L=T-V$.
$T=\frac{1}{2}m(\dot{x}^2+\dot{z}^2)$ and $V=mgz$, right?
I took the liberty and defined the distance of the mass point to the origin as r. Am I allowed to do that?
Anyway, thus this gets me: $x=r\cos{\alpha}$ and $z=r\sin{\alpha}$ and the time derivatives: $\dot{x}=\dot{r}\cos{\alpha}-r\sin{\alpha}$ and $\dot{z}=\dot{r}\sin{\alpha}+r\cos{\alpha}$.
Meaning that: $L=\frac{1}{2}m(\dot{r}^2+r^2)-mgr\sin{\alpha}$, right?
I can't deal with the lagrange formalism that easily yet so I will probably make some mistakes, but here is what I got so far:
The approach is:$\frac{d}{dt}(\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{r}})=\frac{\partial L}{\partial r}$, correct?
Resulting in:
$m\ddot{r}=mr-mg\sin{\alpha}$.
Now, I'm not really sure what solving the equations of motion really means. Is writing down $m\ddot{r}=mr-mg\sin{\alpha}$ as I did above enough? Or am I to solve this differential equation?
But even if that were the case I think I would be somehow able to do it. It's just that it's been a long time since I last solved differential equations.
Anyways, about the constraint. As far as I could tell from the wiki entry for euler-lagrange there isn't a way to find the constraint with it. Or did I miss something and there actually is?
I hope someone could tell me if what I did so far is correct. I'm really unsure about these exercises.