0
$\begingroup$

Ok, so I'm beginning to study quantum mechanics. For reference, the book I'm using is "Konishi-Paffuti/Quantum Mechanics-A New introduction".

Now, I get that the quantum state of something (say, a particle) is described by its wave function, which we'll get, I assume, solving a PDE. Once I know the wavefunction, then it's just a matter of some integrals to know the expected value. From my understanding, say I have a function $f(q)$, its expected value is

$$<f(q)>=\int\psi^{*}f(q)\psi \space dq$$

And then I have the mean value of what I expect in my measurement. Now, in this picture where does the "eigenvalues of an operator" come in? Why do I need this assumption if I have an expected value already which I can compare with experimental data?

$\endgroup$
1
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Did one of the answers below answer your question? If so, please accept one! If not, please leave a comment asking for more details. $\endgroup$
    – march
    Commented Jul 5, 2015 at 5:05

2 Answers 2

1
$\begingroup$

Expanding on physicsphile's answer, there is an alternative way of computing the expectation value of $f(q)$, and that is to sum the possible values of $f(q)$ weighted by their respective probabilities as follows.

If $f(q)$ represents a physical dynamical variable, then it is a Hermitian (self-adjoint) operator and can therefore be diagonalized by some set of eigenfunctions $\phi_i(q)$ such that

$$f(q)\phi_i(q) = \lambda_i\phi_i(q),$$

where $\lambda_i$ is the eigenvalue. This set of eigenfunctions is an orthonormal (read: they are orthogonal and normalized) basis for the Hilbert space, and therefore any wave function can be expanded as a linear combination of these eigenfunctions,

$$\psi(q) = \sum_i a_i \phi_i(q).$$

Using your formula for the expected value, we have

$$\langle f(q)\rangle = \int dq~\psi(q)^*f(q)\psi(q) = \int \sum_i a_i^*\phi_i(q)^*f(q)\sum_j a_j\phi_j(q)=\sum_{i,j}a_i^*a_j\int \phi_i(q)^*f(q)\phi_j(q)$$

Now, $f(q)$ acting on $\phi_i(q)$ yields $\lambda_i\phi_i(q)$, and since this eigenvalue is just a number, it can be pulled out of the sum, yielding

$$\langle\phi_i(q)\rangle =\sum_{i,j}a_i^*a_j\lambda_i\int \phi_i(q)^*\phi_j(q).$$

Now, since the eigenfunctions are orthonormal, the integral evaluates to the Kronecker-delta

$$\delta_{ij} = \begin{cases} 1 & i=j\\ 0 & i\neq j \end{cases},$$

in which case the sum collapses to a single sum, yielding

$$\langle\phi_i(q)\rangle =\sum_{i}|a_i|^2\lambda_i.$$

When we recognize $|a_i|^2$ as exactly the expression in physicsphile's answer, you can see that you can interpret the integral you've written as a sum over the eigenvalues (i.e. the possible measured values of $f(q)$!) weighted by their probabilities $|a_i|^2$ in the state $\psi(q)$.

$\endgroup$
0
$\begingroup$

They give you more detail. Using the the eigenfunctions you can work out how probable different measurement results are. The probability of eigenvalue $i$ being measured is:

$$ \left|\int \psi \phi_i^*dq\right|^2 $$

where $\phi_i$ is the corresponding eigenvalue.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.