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Hi I was studying Aristotle motions law and comparing them with Newton. He states that heavier body fall faster than slow ones. I really can't understand how he could committed such a mistake...I mean it's very obvious that 2 stones with different weights would reach to the ground on the same furthermore he believe that after applying a force to an object that object move in a constant speed which again in the falling experiment we obtain that speed will increase for normal objects like stone(not something like leather which air resistance influence on its speed)...

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    $\begingroup$ This question is better for history of science and math stack exchange. Even there, better grammar would be appreciated. $\endgroup$ – Cicero Jun 23 '15 at 18:22
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    $\begingroup$ I don't think History of Science and Mathematics would appreciate this question either, as it's asking about the knowledge of Aristotle (maybe his lack of understanding?), rather than the history of Aristotle's physics. $\endgroup$ – Kyle Kanos Jun 23 '15 at 18:25
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    $\begingroup$ I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it is about why Aristotle did not get his physics right, and not about actual physics. $\endgroup$ – ACuriousMind Jun 23 '15 at 18:29
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    $\begingroup$ On another note, it is very easy to be here, in this day and age, standing on the shoulders of giants, convinced of the value of experiment and the scientific method, and shake our head at the poor idiot Greek philosopher who was wrong about how the world worked. Even getting to the point where experiments are considered better reasons to believe in things than pretty philosophical reasoning took us some time, let alone devising the correct experiment. Be very careful in your assumptions when looking at the ancient world through the lens of our modern day knowledge. $\endgroup$ – ACuriousMind Jun 23 '15 at 18:32
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    $\begingroup$ The fundamental issue here is that the modern scientific method, which isn't all that intuitive, didn't exist before the 17th century. Otherwise, had the Romans or Greeks embraced the scientific method, they would have set foot on the Moon (it took us only 300 years, so there is no reason why they couldn't have done it in a few centuries). But had they done that, on the ancient StackExchange the same question would have been asked about another philosopher who lived thousands of years earlier. $\endgroup$ – Count Iblis Jun 23 '15 at 18:33
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Well, this subject deserves some effort and a help form philosophy of science. But if you are looking for a mathematical and physical approach I would suggest you to read the paper by Carlo Rovelli. Here's the link. Summarizing, the paper argues that within the conditions Aristotle lived his physics can be taken as an empirically grounded theory.

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