A recent Scientific American article brought up an old issue, which is this: According to quantum chromodynamic models, the emergence of exactly 1/2 unit of spin in a proton (or a neutron, or any other 3-quark quark system) apparently is quite mysterious due to the ambiguity of how quarks, virtual quarks, and gluons.
That brings to mind a simple question for which I hope there is a simple answer: Since the 1/2 spin of a silver atom is the result of a system of electrons and protons bound by photons, why is that situation fundamentally different (or is it?) from a set of quarks bound together by gluons?
My first guess would be that the energy levels involved in quark binding are high enough that you lose the asymptotic simplicity of QED. So if it's just a matter of "QCD is messier doncha know," I'm OK with that, I guess. But even there it would seem that the question would be one of degree, not of absolutes, and that silver atoms should still suffer from a similar ambiguity at a much lower level.
My second guess would be that since gluons carry color (analogous to photons having charge), that tosses in some factor that makes it harder to ignore their contribution.
Insights, anyone? Hardly a critical issue, but just... interesting, at least to me.
Addendum - 2015-05-25.2307 EST Mon
I am exceedingly annoyed to have to make the observation that silver atoms, despite their rich history as part of the uncovering the strange half-spin of fermions... are not fermions.
Both isotopes of neutral silver, 107 and 109, are bosons. The para versions with net nuclear spin opposite to net electron spin are spin 0 bosons, and the ortho versions with net nuclear spin parallel to net electron spin are spin 1 bosons. That's because both Ag-107 and Ag-109 have a net nuclear spin of $\frac{1}{2}$.
As best I can figure it, what is really going on with silver atoms zipping through a Stern-Gerlach apparatus is a geometric effect of the outermost electron of silver interacting far more strongly with the magnetic field gradient than the enclosed nuclear-electron composite of +1 charge and net spin $\pm\frac{1}{2}$. The geometric enclosing the composite positive fermion within the zero-orbital-momentum outermost electron orbital apparently so eclipses the inner fermion that the result appears to be a fermionic silver atom, right down to its bizarre separation into two groups when passing through a sufficiently strong magnetic gradient.
I am annoyed by this because I've always assumed that the silver nucleus had an even number of nucleons, at least in the context of Stern-Gerlach. It literally never occurred to me that it might be odd, since that (as noted) would make silver atoms bosons.
So: Why do none of the prevalent physics descriptions -- at least the ones I've seen, including in particular Feynman's very detailed discussion -- bother to mention this rather critical little point?
Does this affect my question? Well, it certainly does if the issue is how you measure spin, since clearly the "visibility" of the spin if a composite charged fermion is a complicated issue that, in the case of silver, can approach zero in certain cases.
But I think more broadly there's still and interesting simple question in all of this: If QM quantizes spin, always, then QM regardless of the binding forces involved will necessarily require the components involved to "line up" appropriately whenever the particle is in a situation where its quantized spin is measurable. Unless that more generic "top down QM quantization coordination" issue is well understood and modeled, it's a bit hard to imagine how a bottom-up perspective on spin can ever be complete.