I have a question about a problem I was set recently.
The exercise reads:
The Hamiltonian of an harmonic oscillator driven by a classical force is $H=H_0+H_1$ with $$H_0=\hbar \omega \left( a^\dagger a+\frac{1}{2} \right) \text{ and } H_1=-i\left( \alpha a^\dagger - \alpha^\ast a\right).$$ Use the interaction picture and express the evolution operator $U\left( t\right) = \exp \left( -\frac{i}{\hbar}H_1t\right)$ using the displacement operator $D(\alpha )=\exp(\alpha a^\dagger -\alpha^\ast a)$
The solution reads:
Moving to an interaction picture using $\psi^S=U_0\psi^I$ with $U_0=\exp(-\frac{i}{\hbar}H_0t)$, one has $$H^I_1=U_0^\dagger H_1U_0=-i\alpha e^{i\omega t}a^\dagger+i\alpha^\ast e^{-i\omega t}a$$ and \begin{align} U^I & = \exp(i\omega t\;a^\dagger a)\exp[-\frac{1}{\hbar}(\alpha a^\dagger -\alpha^\ast a)t]\exp(-i\omega t\;a^\dagger a) \\ & =\exp[-\frac{1}{\hbar}(\alpha e^{i\omega t}a^\dagger -\alpha^\ast e^{-i\omega t} a)t] \\ & =D(\frac{1}{\hbar}\alpha e^{i\omega t}t). \end{align}
My question(s):
Why does $U(t)$ have this form? I understand $U^I$ satisfies $$i\hbar \partial_t U^I=H^I_1U^I$$ but $$[H^I_1(t_1), H^I_1(t_2)]=|\alpha |^2(e^{i\omega \Delta t}-e^{-i\omega \Delta t})=2|\alpha |^2\cos(\omega \Delta t)\neq 0.$$ Is the condition (to commute for different times) not necessary to have an exponential of $H^I$ as a solution to this equation?