I have read these posts here:
Why do people still talk about bohmian mechanics/hidden variables
What combinations of realism, non-locality, and contextuality are ruled out in quantum theory?
and the discussions. I haven't read any of the papers mentioned there yet. I have also made an internet search on the subject of locality and I' d wish to understand some thinks.
The question after reading the above is this: Is the locality - non-locality a subject of interpretation of quantum mechanics? I understand that maybe it's me who got confused, but what I ask is, if the subject of locality(if it holds or not) is a function of the interpretation of quantum mechanics(or maybe if it still is under research) or if it is settled: quantum mechanics is a local or non-local theory for all interpretations.
Note: I take these definitions of locality and non-locality in quantum mechanics:1)Locality is the assumption that an object can be influenced only by its immediate surroundings by the events which took place in its immediate past.2)Non locality implies that two events which are separated from each other by space-like separation can affect each other.
Thank you.