So, I'm learning phase interference.
Imagine we have two waves.
$$ E_1 = A_0sin(wt) $$
and
$$ E_2 = A_0sin(wt+\phi) $$
With
$$ \phi = \frac{2\pi}{\lambda}dsin(\theta) $$
Which is the path difference.
So, if we add the two together, we get
$$ E_t = E_1 + E_2 = A_0sin(wt) + A_0sin(wt+\phi) $$
Which can be simplified to
$$ 2A_0cos(\frac{\phi}{2})sin(wt + \frac{\phi}{2}) $$
And as the intensity is proportional to the square of the amplitude, we can thus say that
$$ I = 4I_0cos^2(\frac{\phi}{2}) $$
Which, when plugging in $ \phi $, gives us
$$ I = 4I_0cos^2(\frac{\pi}{\lambda}dsin(\theta)) $$
However, a guide on the matter published by MIT states that the answer is actually
$$ I = I_0cos^2(\frac{\pi}{\lambda}dsin(\theta)) $$
Where did the 4 go?