I find the "a priori equal probability postulate" in statistical mechanics terribly frustrating.
I look at two different states of a system, and they look very different. The particles are moving in different ways! I like to imagine that if you zoom in on the first system you might spot a dozen particles flying off, dancing along to their own chaotic 12-body problem, while in the second system 2 particles might be shooting off, trapped in a romantic orbit. I see absolutely no reason for assuming that two completely different micro-states with the same total energy will occur with equal frequency.
As far as I can see, Laplace's Principle of Insufficient Reason works great for decks of cards, because cards are all the same, except for their labels. But there's more than labelling going on with a physical system of atoms - different states are actually different!
So I want to ask about an alternative justification for this principle, which doesn't assume it a priori. I found the argument in Landau and Lifchitz, but they don't discuss how it relates to the aforementioned postulate.
We imagine that the microstate of our system at some time $t$ is governed by some probability distribution, $\rho(x;t)$ in phase space. Then the probability density function will evolve over time, but will remain constant at a point moving along with the phase-flow - this follows from Liouville's theorem and probabilistic common sense.
Now the only sensible definition for an equilibrium distribution I can see is one in which the pdf stops evolving, $\rho(x;t) = \rho(x;t+\Delta t)$ for all $\Delta t$. But this means that the pdf (which we can just call $\rho(x)$ now) must be constant along trajectories, and so is a constant of the motion.
But this means $\log \rho(x)$ is a constant of the motion. But this is additive (because probabilities multiply), and mechanical systems only have 7 additive integrals of the motion: energy, momentum and angular momentum. And if we assume Galilean relativity and say our system isn't spinning, then if the probability distribution is an equilibrium distribution, it must be a function of the energy alone (actually, to retain additivity, we must just have $\log \rho \propto \text{Energy}+\text{Const}$). And crucially, if we fix the energy, then $\rho$ must be uniform.
It seems to me this argument gives the "a priori equal probability postulate" with no major assumptions. We simply said:
- Our system's state is governed by some probability distribution (seems reasonable).
- This distribution, whatever it is, should evolve in time so it is constant with the phase flow (again, given Liouville's theorem this just seems obvious.)
- This distribution shouldn't change over time (our macroscopic system at equilibrium doesn't seem to be changing, so whatever probability distribution we pick, it shouldn't change either.)
And from this we derive that our probability distribution is a function of the energy alone. If we add a fourth requirement:
- The total energy should be constant.
Then we see the only way of satisfying all 4 of these reasonable-looking requirements is, remarkably, the microcanonical distribution. The equal probability postulate is our first beautiful theorem rather than a doubtful, unjustified assumption.
My question is, is this argument legitimate? If not, where is the flaw? And can this flaw be patched up? This postulate is so ubiquitous in statistical mechanics texts that I can't believe it can be dispensed with so simply.