Going through the Quantum mechanics book by Capri, am time and again held with some stupid doubts on this topic of self-adjointness. We have for the momentum operator in finite domain,
$$ p = -i\hbar \frac{\partial }{\partial x} \\ D_p = \big\{f(x),f'(x)\in \mathrm{L_2}(0,L) , f(0) = f(L) = 0 \big\} $$ Now we go on to define, the adjoint of the $p$ operator, with the larger domain
$$ p^{\dagger} = -i\hbar \frac{\partial }{\partial x} \\ D_{p^{\dagger}} = \big\{f(x),f'(x)\in \mathrm{L_2}(0,L) , f(0) = \mathrm e^{i\theta}f(L)\big\} $$
Now, he says, we can see that $p^{\dagger}$ is self-adjoint, which I believe means that $p^\dagger = p ^{{\dagger}^{\dagger}}$ ($D_{p^\dagger} = D_{p ^{{\dagger}^{\dagger}}}$). So we have a self-adjoint extension of $p$. So my question now is that, is it $p ^{{\dagger}^{\dagger}}$ that is the extension of p or what is it that is its extension ?
But he also goes on to say that a symmetric operator $A$ is essentially self-adjoint if $ A^{{\dagger}^{\dagger}} $ is self-adjoint. But is not this true for the above case, given that $p^\dagger = p ^{{\dagger}^{\dagger}}$ and a $p^\dagger $ is self-adjoint ? But however the above case is not essentially self-adjoint since there are infinite ways of choosing $\theta$.