1
$\begingroup$

Suppose we have a general two-particle state $ \Phi (x_1, x_2 ) = \sum_{n_1,n_2} \phi_{n_1,n_2}(x_1,x_2)|n_1,n_2> $, where $n_1$ can be any of $n$ possible states, and $n_2$ can be any of $m$ states. If the state is decomposable then the coefficients $\phi_{1,2}$ can be decomposed into $\phi_{n_1} * \phi_{n_2} $.

It seems to me that for the decomposable state there are $n + m$ independent coefficients ($n$ coefficients describing the state of partice 1, and $m$ coefficients describing the state of particle 2), and if the system is not decomposable, i.e., if there is entanglement between the two particles, then the number of independent coefficients is $n * m$ ($n$ possibilities for $n_1$ times $ m$ possibilities for $n_2$ in $\phi_{n_1,n_2}$). If this logic is correct, then the number of conditions to be fulfilled by a decomposable state is $nm - n - m$. However, according to the book I am studying the number of conditions is $nm - n - m +1 $. I wonder why there is an extra condition.

I am not considering normalization, because the states are seen as rays in projective space, and furthermore both the decomposable and entangled states would have to fulfill the same normalization requirements so I guess there would be no difference.

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ Is there a reason for the x-dependence in the state? $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 26, 2011 at 2:57
  • $\begingroup$ $x$ is supposed to represent a three dimensional vector. Sorry if that was unclear, maybe I should have written it in bold. $\endgroup$
    – Raphael R.
    Commented Nov 26, 2011 at 4:14
  • $\begingroup$ No, it's just that x being or not being there seems to have nothing to do with your question, as you are only taking about the "spin" degree of freedom. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 26, 2011 at 5:52

1 Answer 1

2
$\begingroup$

If you divide out normalization & overall phase, the two states have $n-1$ and $m-1$ independent (complex) degrees of freedom, respectively. On the other hand, the joint two-particle state has $nm-1$ independent degrees of freedom. The difference is $nm-n-m+1$.

Differently speaking, if you leave in phase and normalization, the two states (in a tensor product) have only $n+m-1$ degrees of freedom, since phase + normalization is a joint property.


EDIT: Alternative derivation:

If we write $|\phi\rangle = \sum_{ij} M_{ij} |i\rangle |j\rangle$, we are asking for the number of conditions such that $M_{ij} = a_i b_j$. Clearly, this means that $M$ is determined by its first row and column (which can be choosen freely). The remaining $(n-1)(m-1)=nm-n-m+1$ elements cannot be chosen and enumerate the constraints. Again, the first row and column together only have $n+m-1$ independent variables.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.