1
$\begingroup$

Consider a quantum system (finite dimensional) has overall Hamiltonian:

$H_t = H_0 + w(t)H_c$

with $H_0, H_c$ constant in time and traceless and $w(t)$ a, not too badly behaved, function of time.

It is true that if an operator commutes with the overall Hamiltonian (at all times) then it commutes with the time evolution operator, i.e. $[A, H_t]=0$ for all time implies $[A, U_t] = 0$.

Question: Is it also true that $[A, U_t] = 0$ implies $[A,H_0]=0$ and $[A,H_c]=0$ separately? If so, how can this be proven?

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ "Is it also true that [A,Ut]=0 implies [A,H0] and [A,Hc] separately?" Separately WHAT. Commute? $\endgroup$
    – hft
    Commented Apr 4, 2015 at 4:05

1 Answer 1

1
$\begingroup$

Assuming $A$ itself is time-independent. If $[A, U_t]=0$ for all $t$, then it can be proven that $[A, H]=0$: We have

$H=i \partial_t U_t\cdot U_t^\dagger$

Because $[A, U_t]=0$, it follows that $[A, \partial_t U_t]=0$ since we assume $\partial_t A=0$.

Now $[A, H]=[A, H_0]+w(t)[A, H_c]=0$. Again we take derivative with respect to $t$, we get $w'(t)[A, H_c]=0$. So we conclude that as long as $w'(t)\neq 0$ for some $t$, $[A, H_c]=[A, H_0]=0$.

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ This doesn't answer the question: Does [A,Ut]=0 imply [A,H0] and [A,HC]=0 separately? $\endgroup$
    – hft
    Commented Apr 4, 2015 at 4:11

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.