Bell derives the inequality $$|E(\vec{a},\vec{b})-E(\vec{a},\vec{c})|\leq 1+E(\vec{b},\vec{c})$$ in his book Speakable and unspeakable in quantum mechanics. In this derivation he uses the assumption that when the axes $\vec{a}$, $\vec{b}$ are aligned, the outcomes of measurements $A,B$ of the spins of spacelike-seperated particles 1,2 along these axes respectively are anticorrelated so that the product $AB$=-1.
Other similar "Bell-type" inequalities such as the CHSH inequality do not use this assumption. The CHSH inequality has the form
$$-2\leq E(\vec{a},\vec{b}) + E(\vec{a},\vec{b}') - E(\vec{a}',\vec{b}) + E(\vec{a}',\vec{b}')\leq 2 $$
My question is, is there anything other than the above assumption made in the derivation of Bell's original inequality that makes it unsuitable to experimental testing? I.e. is it something to do with the form of Bell's inequality?
Most papers I've read just simply state that the original inequality isn't suitable for testing and gloss over some statement about perfect correlations.