This is a more specific extension to this question I came across today
One certain aspect of Faraday's Law always stumped me (other than it is an experimental observation back in the 19th century)
The Maxwell-Faraday Equation reads:
$$\nabla \times \mathbf{E}=-\frac{\partial \mathbf{B}}{\partial t}$$
I am also briefly aware that in special relativity, magnetic fields in one frame are basically electric fields in another, but
Q1 How exactly does a changing magnetic field induces an electric field. Is there any theoretical explanation that came up in the literature using more fundamental theories such as QED and relativity that explains how it happens?
Q2 Is their a theoretical reason Why does the electric field is produced in a way that opposes the change in the magnetic field?