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Introduction This is an honest question... I don't study inflationary theory extensively (This is an understatement) but I am lost as to why it was developed in the first place. Here is why:

Questions:

1) If all mass-energy contained in the universe came from the same source then all quantum systems would have been initially entangled, or such is my understanding. If this is the case, then for the rest of time, each quantum system would have some initial quantum correlation embedded in its existence. I am no expert but it seems conceivable to think that this mechanism of correlating systems would be all that is needed to describe the isotropic nature of our universe rather than an inflationary theory. So What does inflationary theory explain that quantum entanglement cannot?

2) Where is my logic flawed?

In essence it seems to me that quantum entanglement is all that is needed in order to allow an isotropic universe...

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    $\begingroup$ All mass-energy did not come from the same source. Without inflation, the different regions of the universe were never in contact with each other. $\endgroup$ – Jim Mar 2 '15 at 20:16
  • $\begingroup$ @JimdalftheGrey: That probably could be an answer. $\endgroup$ – Kyle Kanos Mar 4 '15 at 1:17
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Your logic is flawed in that all mass-energy did not come from the same source. All mass-energy was created in a fairly even distribution across the universe, however without inflation, the different regions of the universe were not in causal contact with each other.

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