2
$\begingroup$

The fine structure correction is composed of the relativistic correction and spin-orbit coupling. The lowest-order relativistic correction to the Hamiltonian is

$$ H_r' = -\frac{p^4}{8m^3c^2}$$

According to Griffiths, this perturbation is spherically symmetric, so it commutes with $L^2$ and $L_z$. He uses this to justify the use of nondegenerate perturbation theory for the relativistic correction, even though the hydrogen atom is very degenerate.

$p = -i\hbar\vec \nabla$. With this and $H_r'$ above, how can you tell $H_r'$ is spherically symmetric? $\vec \nabla ^4$ won't depend on $\theta$ or $\phi$?

Also, I know that $H$, $L^2$, and $L_z$ share common eigenfunctions, which are the spherical harmonics. So $[H,L_z] = 0$ etc, but how do we know that $[L_z, $anything spherically symmetric$] = 0$? The hydrogen atom is degenerate in $n$, but does does knowing that $L_z$ and $L^2$ commuting with the perturbation guarantees that $n,l,m$ are the good quantum numbers?

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

3
$\begingroup$

The easiest way to see that $p^4$ is spherically symmetric is to view it in momentum space. If you apply $p^4$ to a momentum eigenstate $|p\rangle$ the result clearly only depends on the magnitude of the momentum vector of the state and not on its orientation, so if $R$ is a rotation operator we have \begin{equation} p^4 R|p\rangle = Rp^4|p\rangle \end{equation} Since the momentum eigenstates form a basis we can extend this result to a general state by linearity, so we have $p^4R = Rp^4$, in other words $H_r^\prime$ is spherically symmetric.

The angular momentum operators are defined to be the generators for rotations, so if $R_z(\delta\theta)$ is an infinitesimal rotation around the $z$ axis, $L_z$ is given by \begin{equation} R_z(\delta\theta) = 1 -\imath\delta\theta L_z + O(\delta\theta^2)\end{equation} If we have a spherically symmetric operator, $Q$, then $[R,Q] = 0$ for all rotations $R$. In particular \begin{align*} 0 & = [R_z(\delta\theta),Q]\\ & = [1- \imath\delta\theta L_z, Q]\\ \Rightarrow 0 &= [L_z, Q]\end{align*}

When we are doing degenerate perturbation theory the problem is essentially to find a basis in which the perturbation Hamiltonian, $H_r^\prime$ is diagonal. We can do this the old fashioned way by finding the eigenvectors, but this is long and boring. The trick to getting around this is to find some operator, $S$, we already understand which commutes with the perturbation. Since $H_r^\prime$ and $S$ commute they have a basis of mutual eigenvectors, so if we use this basis $H_r^\prime$ will already be diagonal and we will have saved a lot of work.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.