This is from Griffith's "Introduction to Electrodynamics" 4th edition, problem 5.33.
I need to show that
$$ \tag 1 \frac{\partial \textbf{A}_{above}}{\partial n}-\frac{\partial \textbf{A}_{below}}{\partial n}=-\mu_{0}\textbf{K} $$
where $\textbf{A}$ is the magnetic vector potential (i.e. $\textbf{B}=\nabla \times \textbf{A}$), and $\textbf{K}$ is the surface current density, and I am supposed to use the equations:
$$ \tag 2 \textbf{B}_{above}-\textbf{B}_{below}=\mu_{0}(\textbf{K}\times\hat{\textbf{n}})$$
$$\tag 3 \textbf{A}_{above}=\textbf{A}_{below}$$
$$ \tag 4 \nabla\cdot\textbf{A}=0$$
The problem is, I'm not sure what $\frac{\partial\textbf{A}}{\partial n}$ is. For a scalar, the book defines $\frac{\partial V}{\partial n}$ as: $\nabla V \cdot \hat{\textbf{n}}$
Would $\frac{\partial\textbf{A}}{\partial n}$ simply a vector with components $\nabla A_{i}\cdot\hat{\textbf{n}}$ for $i=x,y,z$?
That's what I tried, but with no luck so far.