I have been looking for books about this question for several days. However, almost all books use Landau–Lifshitz pseudotensor to calculate the energy of gravitational waves. And they said the result of Gravitational Waves' energy doesn't depend on the kinds of pseudotensor. So, I want to try to use another way to calculate the energy of gravitational waves, such as the ADM Energy.
First of all, we let $$ g_{ab}=\eta_{ab}+\gamma_{ab} \,.$$ Then use the linear Einstein's Field Equation,$$ R_{ab}=0 ~~\Rightarrow~~ \Box^2\gamma_{ab}=0 \,.$$ For a plane wave propagating along the $x^3 $-axis,we know that the only components of $ \gamma_{\mu\nu} $ that are different from zero are $$ \gamma_{11}=-\gamma_{22},\gamma_{12}=\gamma_{21} $$ So, $$ \gamma_{jj}=\gamma_{11}+\gamma_{22}+\gamma_{33}=0 $$ Consider the ADM Energy $$ E=\frac{c^4}{16 \pi G} \lim_{r\to\infty} \iint_{S_{r}}\hspace{-34.5px}\subset\!\supset \left(\partial_{j}h_{ij}-\partial_{i}h_{jj}\right) \, \mathrm{d}S^i$$ Some calculation about $ h_{ab} $,$$ h_{ab}=g_{ab} \mp n_{a}n_{b} ~~\Rightarrow~~ h_{ij}=g_{ij}=\eta_{ij}+\gamma_{ij} $$ $$ h_{jj}=\eta_{jj}+\gamma_{jj}=\eta_{jj}= \text{const} $$ $$ \partial_{1}h_{ij}=\partial_{2}h_{ij}=0 $$ Finally, we have $$ E=0 $$
The result is certainly wrong, but where is the mistake? I have been thinking for a long time, but I don't get anything.