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I know it is quite basic for this site, but I am confused...is it just a convention to take it as zero, or there is some logic? I really dont think that V = kq/r r->infinity, v -> 0 is right, because this is circular reasoning, as this formula already assumes V at infinity equals zero. Please tell me if this is a convention with no logic or there is some underlying principle.

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Potential is always uniquely defined, but only up to a constant. It is potential difference that is the physically meaningful concept. So you can set the zero of potential anywhere, as long as it is consistent, i.e. the potential difference between 2 points is correct. It is usually convenient to set the zero of potential at infinity, but not always, such as for a electrically charged plane.

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