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I was trying to understand the derivation of the Lippmann-Schwinger equation in Sakurai's Modern Quantum Mechanics, Section 6.1. Our teacher presented a much simpler derivation, similar to that on Wikipedia. My question is:

What is the motivation for such a complicated derivation? Is it just to get around the inversion of the operator?

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    $\begingroup$ Not having a copy of Sakurai's Modern Quantum Mechanics or your teacher's notes, it's hard to comment. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 27, 2015 at 16:59
  • $\begingroup$ Quantum Mechanics (Leslie E. Ballentine),you'll find your answer there,great book. $\endgroup$
    – user71065
    Commented Jan 27, 2015 at 17:18
  • $\begingroup$ More on LSE. $\endgroup$
    – Qmechanic
    Commented Jul 14, 2015 at 21:55
  • $\begingroup$ The wikipedia material at en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… does not (23rd Jan 2024), as I understand matters, actually contain a derivation of the equation! $\endgroup$
    – user151522
    Commented Jan 23 at 17:27
  • $\begingroup$ For a proof, of what you might think of as the naive form of the Lippmann-Schwinger equation, see at math.stackexchange.com/a/4850513/553318 $\endgroup$
    – user151522
    Commented Jan 24 at 19:36

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