0
$\begingroup$

I had posted a question What is the actual meaning of the density operator?. After that I understood that if I have the expression of a density operator $$\rho=\sum_{i=1}^{i=k}p_i|\psi_i\rangle \langle \psi_i| ...(0)$$ then it means that the system of qubits defined by $\rho$ is in one of the states ( state vector ) $|\psi_i\rangle$ but I don't in which but I know the probability with which it can be in a state. But then I came across this $$\rho_1 = \frac{1}{2}|a\rangle \langle a|+\frac{1}{2}|b\rangle \langle b |...(1)$$ $$|a\rangle=\sqrt{\frac{3}{4}}|0\rangle+\sqrt{\frac{1}{4}}|1\rangle$$ $$|b\rangle=\sqrt{\frac{3}{4}}|0\rangle-\sqrt{\frac{1}{4}}|1\rangle$$ $$\rho_2=\frac{3}{4}|0\rangle \langle 0| + \frac{1}{4}|1\rangle \langle1|...(2)$$ Now $\rho_1..(1)$ and $\rho_2..(2)$ are mathematically the same but by definition I gave alongside equation $(0)$, equation $(1)$ means qubit is in either state $|a\rangle$ or $|b\rangle$ whereas equation $2$ tells it is in either $|0\rangle$ or $|1\rangle$.Thus being mathematically equal they don't seem equal to me when I see them by this basic definition of density operator. What am I missing?

PS : Sorry for vague terms like state or system. Basically my question is just restricted to one qubit system where state is the vector state of the qubit in $|0\rangle,|1\rangle$ basis. And this example is from Nielsen and Chuang.

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

2
$\begingroup$

The two density matrices are expressed in a different basis of the same Hilbert space. If you compute the expectation values on any state you like you will find the same result with both $\rho_1$ and $\rho_2$. Hence by polarization you can conclude they are indeed the same operator, i.e. they're acting in the same way on the Hilbert space in question.

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ but one definition tells that qubit is in $a$ or $b$ and another tells it is either in $0$ or $1$ is it not a contradiction ? $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 19, 2015 at 11:44
  • $\begingroup$ nope, because $a$ and $b$ are not orthogonal to 0 and 1. It is the same situation of the Stern-Gerlach experiment, or in simpler term, that of light passing through different polarisers with non-orthogonal axes. $\endgroup$
    – Phoenix87
    Commented Jan 19, 2015 at 11:48

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.