Take, for simplicity, a Lennard-Jones fluid below the critical temperature, which is to say that there is a phase separation into fluid and gas and thus an interface is formed. The macroscale picture is that there's tension acting tangent to this interface. But of course at the microscale things are not as pretty: The interface is diffuse and therefore the interfacial tension, too, should be distributed accordingly.
My question is, then: how does one define stress (in classical systems) with long-range interactions?
I have listed a couple of options below. As I understand it, the differences in the approaches are very much related to how things are handled in general relativity: Hilbert vs. Canonical vs. Belinfante-Rosenfeld stress-energy tensors. I am assuming the debate, if there ever was one, has been resolved in GR, but not being an expert on the subject matter, I would greatly appreciate if the lessons drawn from those could be explained in simple terms.
Now, we could define the stress as the tensor whose divergence is force density. Now obviously this definition is not unique, and equating the time derivative of momentum density with that of force, we end up with $$\sigma^{mn}(r) = \left\langle- \sum_i \frac{p^m_ip^n_i}{m}\delta(\mathbf{r}-\mathbf{r}_i) + \sum_{i>j}\nabla_i^m\varphi(r_{ij})\int_i^j\delta(\mathbf{r}-\mathbf{\ell})\mathrm{d}\ell^n\right\rangle$$ where the integral is over any contour from the particle $i$ to $j$ [Schofield & Henderson, Proc. R. Soc. Lond. A 379, 231 (1982)]. That this contour is arbitrary is at the heart of the problem: With different choices one gets different results, which is problematic. It is often advocated that the stress tensor itself is a non-physical entity, and one should only be concerned with measurable thermodynamical quantities such as interfacial tension (which ought to be an integral over the stress), but this seems odd to me. While the latter can be calculated from the former, if the stress tensor is nonunique, so would the interfacial tension be (this actually does not happen in planar geometry, but does in more general systems).
Another option might be to use, much like the aforementioned Hilbert stress-energy tensor, $$\sigma^{mn} = \frac{2}{\sqrt{g}}\frac{\delta \mathcal{F}}{\delta g_{mn}}$$ where the variation of free energy $\delta \mathcal{F} = \int \sqrt{g}\sigma^{mn}\delta\varepsilon_{mn}\mathrm{d}^3x$; $\varepsilon_{mn}$ being the strain, interpreted through metric changes for the above formula [Mistura, Int. J. Thermophys. 8, 397 (1987)]. This form is automatically symmetric and unique. Moreover, it is equivalent to the previous definition should one choose the integration contours to be straight lines from one atom to the next. This all sounds great, but will this always give the correct results for measurable quantities i.e. is it fully consistent with thermodynamics?
On top of these issues, one likely has to worry about non-extensibility.
To summarize: Can one generalize the Hilbert stress-energy tensor to classical thermodynamics by calling the variation of free energy w.r.t. the metric (multiplied by $2/\sqrt{g}$) the stress tensor? Or must one use the canonical stress(-energy) tensor? The latter would lead to problems with gauge invariance; How does one interpret these? Is there an obvious proof? And finally: Are the suggested approaches doomed to fail due to the long range nature of the problem, and thus the non-extensibility of the thermodynamical quantities?