0
$\begingroup$

In our physics class we were discussing about Coulomb's Law and equation for the electrostatic force between two points: $$F_{e}=\frac{Q_{1}Q_{2}}{4\pi \epsilon_0 r^2}$$

From the equation a query arose which is for what reason does the constant involve $4\pi$.

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ The link I've suggested has itself been closed as a duplicate of a couple of other questions. However I think it is the best match to your question and the answers to it are relevant. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 31, 2014 at 10:05

1 Answer 1

2
$\begingroup$

It's just a matter of rationalisation and mathematical convenience. $4\pi$ corresponds to the whole solid angle, which usually simplifies when you deal with Gauss' theorem. In other words, you can simply redefine a constant $k$ to be any multiple of another constant, $1/E_0$ in this case.

$\endgroup$
2
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Can you explain it more explicitly with some kind of equations or diagrams.I understand calculus but I am new to Electricity & Magnetism. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 31, 2014 at 10:00
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Following John Rennie's suggestion, here is a relevant link on SE physics.stackexchange.com/q/74254 $\endgroup$
    – Phoenix87
    Commented Dec 31, 2014 at 10:08

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.