I have question which I'm unsure of whether or not I am thinking about it right. If an object is sliding down frictionless incline and it then comes to the "foot" of the incline where it encounters friction, how far would it travel. The foot of the incline is horizontal.
The only information given was height of the incline and the coefficient of kinetic friction. I used conservation of energy to find the velocity at the foot of the incline. After, I solved for horizontal displacement using kinetic energy = displacement x mass x gravitational acceleration x coefficient of kinetic friction.
Can anyone offer some insight into whether or not this is a good approach? Thank you.