1
$\begingroup$

I have question which I'm unsure of whether or not I am thinking about it right. If an object is sliding down frictionless incline and it then comes to the "foot" of the incline where it encounters friction, how far would it travel. The foot of the incline is horizontal.

The only information given was height of the incline and the coefficient of kinetic friction. I used conservation of energy to find the velocity at the foot of the incline. After, I solved for horizontal displacement using kinetic energy = displacement x mass x gravitational acceleration x coefficient of kinetic friction.

Can anyone offer some insight into whether or not this is a good approach? Thank you.

$\endgroup$
2
$\begingroup$

If the "foot" of the incline is itself also inclined, you need to take into account further increase in energy due to gravity. If the foot is horizontal, then your approach is fine - because you compute the normal force times coefficient of friction to get force of friction, and force times displacement is work done by the object. When it runs out of kinetic energy, it stops.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.