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I've recently stumbled upon a semiclassical approximation to quantum field theory that I've never heard of and have a hard time understanding. Consider the Hamiltonian, \begin{equation} H = \frac{c}{ M ^2 } \bar{\psi} \gamma _\mu \psi \bar{\chi} \gamma ^\mu \chi \end{equation} Now the claim is that we can approximation how the $ \chi $ particle will behave in a medium of $ \psi $ particles with the following Hamiltonian, \begin{equation} H = \frac{ c }{ M ^2 } \left\{ \int \,d^3p f ( E _p ) \left\langle \psi ( p , s ) \right| \bar{\psi} \gamma ^\mu \psi \left| \psi ( p, s ) \right\rangle \right\} \bar{\chi} \gamma _\mu \chi \end{equation} where $ f ( E _p ) $ describes the distribution of $ \psi $ field in the medium. This should apparently be an obvious step but I am having trouble wrapping my head around it. How can I justify this step. This is quite different then integrating out the $ \psi $ fields.

Note: Though the context likely isn't very important I stumbled upon this step in a derivation of the MSW effect for neutrino oscillations in matter that can be found here

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I see this as a partial trace on the $\psi$ space, that is :

Let $H$ be the hamiltonian applying on the $(\psi, \chi)$ space, and $H_{eff}$ the reduced hamiltonian applying on the $\chi$ space. Take some density matrix $\rho$ applying on the $\psi$ space.

Then : $H_{eff} = Tr_\psi(\rho H)$

Here one is taking $\rho = \int d^3p f(E_p) |\psi(p,s)\rangle \langle \psi(p,s)|$

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    $\begingroup$ Your answer is illuminating! Indeed, as in any statistical system we need to average classically the quantum expectation values. This is nothing but what it is done with the density matrix once the distribution of the states $ f(E_p)$ is given. $\endgroup$
    – TwoBs
    Commented Oct 2, 2014 at 17:35
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This looks to me like essentially a mean-field approximation. One is replacing $\psi$ with its expectation, so one is treating $\psi$ classically and $\chi$ quantumly. The back-action of $\chi$ on $\psi$ is ignored.

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  • $\begingroup$ Sorry for my ignorance (I never studied enough stat mech), but is it obvious that the expectation value of $\bar{\psi}\gamma_\mu \psi $ is given by that braket integrated over its momenta distribution? $\endgroup$
    – JeffDror
    Commented Oct 1, 2014 at 11:58
  • $\begingroup$ I'm not exactly sure. That aspect seems less familiar to me. Does the source give more background on exactly what $| \psi(p,s) \rangle$ signifies? $\endgroup$
    – StephenJ
    Commented Oct 1, 2014 at 15:18
  • $\begingroup$ The author says that "the brackets denote the average over all $\psi$." But I don't understand precisely what this means? $\endgroup$
    – JeffDror
    Commented Oct 1, 2014 at 18:30

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