Let us assume we have a flow of charged particles in a quasi-neutral state (i.e., a plasma) convecting at some speed, $\mathbf{V}_{sw}$ = V$_{sw}$ $\hat{x}$, and the particles have species-dependent thermal speeds, V$_{Ts}$ $\ll$ V$_{sw}$ (for simplicity, just assume protons and electrons). Assume there is a magnetic field, $\mathbf{B}_{o}$ = B$_{o}$ $\hat{z}$, that is small enough that particles can be said to have effectively balistic trajectories (i.e., ignore the gyration initially and/or V$_{Ts}$ $\ll$ V$_{sw}$). Assume that this flow and magnetic field are entirely laminar and homogeneous everywhere initially and that the magnetic field moves with the flow at V$_{sw}$ (this latter part confuses me since sources move, not really the fields, but just bare with me).
Now what if these particles are incident on a magnetic field gradient, $\nabla$B, which is a vector parallel to $\hat{x}$ and |B| only increases in the $\hat{z}$ component. Assume the gradient is strong enough to reflect a small fraction of the incident particles. For now, let us just focus on protons and assume the reflection is specular. Also, let us work in the reference frame where the magnetic field gradient is at rest.
(1) Since the upstream flow and magnetic field are both homogeneous everywhere upstream of the magnetic field gradient, will any given reflected proton know that the magnetic field is moving?
The purpose of the question is to understand arguments that say once a proton is reflected, it will "see" an electric field, $\mathbf{E}_{conv}$ = -$\mathbf{V}_{sw}$ $\times$ $\mathbf{B}_{o}$. However, in my memory of Lorentz transformations, $\mathbf{v}$ $\equiv$ the speed of a reference frame relative to some other lab frame. The idea of a magnetic field moving in this manner bothers me, but not as much as the expression for $\mathbf{E}_{conv}$.
(2) Should not $\mathbf{E}_{conv}$ be expressed in terms of the reflected proton's instantaneous velocity relative to $\mathbf{B}_{o}$ (i.e., $\mathbf{v}$), where $\mathbf{B}_{o}$ is the magnetic field in the proverbial lab frame?
The arguments to which I refer suggest that particles gain energy from this frame-dependent electric field. This should only work if $\mathbf{v}$ $\parallel$ $\mathbf{E}_{conv}$. However, if $\mathbf{E}_{conv}$ = -$\mathbf{v}$ $\times$ $\mathbf{B}_{o}$ as my intuition suggests, then $\mathbf{v}$ $\cdot$ $\mathbf{E}_{conv}$ = 0, right?
(3) Am I wrong to be bothered by the concept of magnetic fields "moving" in the manner I described above, or am I missing something?