Obviously I cannot know what Dirac is thinking, but I think it is just that his direction does not correspond exactly to your direction.
We "know", just as Dirac does, that quantum states are members of some Hilbert space $\mathcal{H}$. We also know that scalar multiplication should not change the state, so $\lvert \psi \rangle$ and $\lambda \lvert \psi \rangle$ should represent the same state for $\lambda \in \mathbb{C} / \{0\}$.
The ray in the Hilbert space (or the direction) given by a single vector $\lvert \psi \rangle$ of a state is $R_\psi = \{\lambda \lvert \psi \rangle \vert \lambda \in \mathbb{C} / \{0\}\}$. Dirac wants us, since all $\lvert \phi \rangle \in R_\psi$ represent the same state, to declare the equivalence relation $\lvert \psi \rangle \sim \lvert \phi \rangle \text{ iff } \lvert\phi\rangle \in R_\psi$ on $\mathcal{H}$ and obtain the projective Hilbert space as $\mathbb{P}\mathcal{H} := \mathcal{H} / \sim$.
It should be noted that, in "intuitive" terms, the complex ray $R_\psi$ is like a punctured plane created by taking the naive real ray $r_\psi := \{c\lvert \psi \rangle\ \vert c \in \mathbb{R^+}\}$ and rotating it around the origin as $R_\psi = \bigcup_{k \in [0,2\pi)} (\mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{i}k} r_\psi)$