When quantizing Yang-Mills theory, we introduce the ghosts as a way to gauge-fix the path integral and make sure that we "count" only one contribution from each gauge-orbit of the gauge field $A_\mu\,^a$, because physically only the orbits themselves correspond to distinct physical configurations whereas the motion within the gauge-orbit should not contribute to the path-integral.
How come we don't run into this problem when we quantize the Fermions, which also have gauge transformations, and also have a gauge orbit? Shouldn't we include a gauge-fixing term for the Fermions as well, or does the term introduced for the Boson fields already pick out the gauge orbit for the Fermions as well? How does this technically come to be?
So far I introduce a gauge fixing term into the Lagrangian as $$ 1 = \int d\left[\alpha\right]\det\left(\frac{\delta G\left[A_{\mu}\left[\alpha\right]\right]}{\delta\alpha}\right)\delta\left(G\left[A\left[\alpha\right]\right]\right) $$ where $\alpha(x)$ are the gauge functions, and $G[]$ is a functional which is non-zero only for a unique gauge-representative in each gauge-orbit, where we have the transformations as: $$ \begin{cases} \psi_{c_{i}} & \mapsto\left(1+i\alpha^{a}t^{a}\right)_{c_{i}c_{j}}\psi_{c_{j}}+\mathcal{O}\left(\left(\alpha^{a}\right)^{2}\right)\\ A_{\mu}\,^{a} & \mapsto A_{\mu}\,^{a}+\frac{1}{g}D_{\mu}\,^{ab}\alpha^{b}+\mathcal{O}\left(\left(\alpha^{a}\right)^{2}\right) \end{cases} $$