I have a bit of an understanding issue why the representations of $SO(3)$ are so important for Quantum Mechanics. When looking at its Irreps one gets the Spin and Angular Momentum operators and thus their physical significance is fairly obvious.
What I don't get is WHY these Irreps give what they give. When introducing the angular momentum operator by canonical quantization $\vec{L} = \vec{r} \times \vec{p}$ where $\vec{r}$ and $\vec{p}$ are operators one arrives at an operator whose entries satisfy the commutation relationships that the images of the Irreps of $SO(3)$ satisfy as well (i.e. $[L_1, L_2] = iL_3$ (up to some $\hbar$s)).
Wigner's theorem then tells us that every single vector operator acting on states that are eigenstates of a rotationally invariant operator (if I understood the theorem correctly).
My main question now is: Is the declaration of $SO(3)$ as a symmetry group a postulate? Is it "obvious?" If yes, why? When we talked about symmetries in classical mechanics it was either a postulate (Noethers Theorem gives us a conserved quantity for the symmetry postulate that the laws of nature are the same everywhere and constant in time) or one could explicitly calculate it (i.e. that a Hamiltonian or Lagrangian is invariant under the act of certain operations like rotations). Which (if any) of that is it in the case of $SO(3)$ and Quantum Mechanics?
I hope someone can shed some light on this for me.