Here is an extremely naive question: Why would the apple fall under the tree?
I am puzzled by this, because the conventional answer that the gravity between the apple and the earth pulling apple down is not satisfactory to me. My thought process goes as follows:
We know that in an appropriate reference frame, we can view the apple falling down from the tree as free fall. Therefore we know $F=mg, a=g$ and the apple should fall to the ground in $\sqrt{\frac{2h}{g}}$ time period since $h=\frac{1}{2}gt^{2}$.
However, the picture is not so clear when we consider earth's rotation. For convenience I ignore the earth movement around the sun. We know that the centripedal force and the gravity are given by $$ F_{1}=m\omega^{2}R, F_{2}=c\frac{mM}{R^{2}} $$ where $c$ is some constant. Therefore, the reason the apple falls to the tree must be the gravity is much stronger than the centrialfugal force required when the apple rotates with the tree. If the centrialfugal force is equal to the gravity, than the apple should be staying in the same spot at the tree. If the centrialfugal force needed is greater than gravity, then the apple would not stay in the free and would flying away from the earth.
Now image a pear falling from the middle of the tree. From our everyday experience, the pear would fall in the same spot as the apple. However, since the pear is closer to the earth, the centripedal force it experiences is less, and the gravity it experiences is greater, too (Here we denote $R'$ for the pear's distance from the earth center, $m_{1}$ for its mass): $$ P_{1}=m_{1}\omega^{2}R', P_{2}=c\frac{Mm_{1}}{R'^{2}} $$ Therefore it is not difficult to see that the acceleration the apple and the pear experiences must be different because of the height. The pear must fall faster. However, since the apple and the pear moves from the same tree, they must have the same angular velocity. In particular when $R$ goes very large, the gravity would be too small and the object would fly away from earth.
- But I feel this explanation is unclear. Now instead of using a constant $g$ denoting the acceleration the apple experiences, we have: $$ g(R)=c\frac{M}{R^{2}}-\omega^{2}R $$ Therefore the apple should somehow deviate from the tree. Intuitively, since at the bottom of the tree the apple would not move at all, and at very high the apple would flying away, at a middle height the apple should have a moderate but measurable deviation.
- My question is, how can we calculate the deviation from the height of tree exactly? The above calculation assumed the angular velocity of the earth is constant; in reality if the tree is tall enough, the angular velocity might be changing subtlely as well. But cast this aside for the moment. If we assume the earth is a sphere and we know $h, c, \omega, M$, etc, can we compute it? Should I expect that an apple falling from the empire state building would move to a different spot than an apple falling down from my hand?
- The problem is difficult to me because assume we know the position, velocity and the exterior force exerted on the apple at some moment: $$ F_1-F_2=F(t_0), V=V(t_0), r=r(t_0) $$ (at least we know when $t=0$), we would not know where the apple is at the next moment unless we do some calculation. At moment $t_{0}$ we know what the angular velocity is; but when the apples falls, its velocity changes. And its angular velocity $\omega=\frac{V}{R}$ would also changes. Therefore we would have to solve a differential equation (a non-linear second order ODE) to compute the answer. And the amount of deviation is simply unclear to me.
Due to the extreme naive nature of the question, all answers are welcome. If I made some stupid mistake in the derivation, please do not hesitate to point it out. Maybe this strange phenomenon I thought would happen never happens in real life because I made some mistake.