# Why is the Ritz combination principle incompatible with Classical Mechanics?

This is a quote from Dirac's Principles of Quantum Mechanics:

"(...) if an atomic system has its equilibrium disturbed in any way and is then left alone, it will be set in oscillation and the oscillations will get impressed on the surrounding electromagnetic field, so that their frequencies may be observed with a spectroscope. Now whatever the laws of force governing the equilibrium, one would expect to be able to include the various frequencies in a scheme comprising certain fundamental frequencies and their harmonics. This is not observed to be the case. Instead, there is observed a new and unexpected connexion between the frequencies, called Ritz's Combination Law of Spectroscopy, according to which all the frequencies can be expressed as differences between certain terms, the number of terms being much less than the number of frequencies. This law is quite unitelligible from the classical standpoint."

I'm having trouble understanding this paragraph. Assuming that the atom is a system in equilibrium that emits e-m waves when perturbed and these e-m waves are product of the oscillations of the atom about its equilibrium configuration that result from the perturbation, does it follow that the Ritz's law is in contradiction with classical mechanics? Why? Thanks.

An example of the Ritz combination principle would be if you have an atom with three energy states, labeled 1, 2, and 3. There are three emission lines, corresponding to $2\rightarrow1$, $3\rightarrow2$, and $3\rightarrow1$. Their frequencies are related by $f_{3\rightarrow1}=f_{2\rightarrow1}+f_{3\rightarrow2}$. This relationship is impossible to understand classically, but quantum-mechanically it simply happens because of energy conservation along with $E=hf$.
The fact is that a simple classical explanation of the emission of spectral lines does exist provided that we discard the concept of a photon being an indivisible entity and assign all quantisation to the atom. In a 'pure state' the atom has no dipole moment and so does not radiate. If it is in state $N$ and this state is perturbed by a suitable small field it will start to radiate having gained some dipole moment. It will radiate EM field and decay until it reaches another 'pure state' $M$. The difference in energy can be expressed in terms of the difference in frequencies ($\Omega_N$ and $\Omega_M$) of the rotating fields of the electrons in their orbits and comes to $h(\Omega_N - \Omega_M)$. All this has been convincingly explained by Ed Jaynes in a number of papers but see his "Survey of the Present status of Neoclassical Radiation Theory" Pages 60-61. You will get it on a Google search for the title.